Jupiter
Apr13-04, 12:21 AM
How can I show that if
\frac{a}{a^2-2b^2},\frac{b}{a^2-2b^2}\in \mathbb{Z}
then a^2-2b^2=\pm 1?
If you care to see the whole problem, you can find it here:
http://www.math.rochester.edu/courses/236H/home/hw12.pdf
It's #4 part c.
BTW, why is the significance of this "norm map"? I tried to google it for fun, but couldn't find much.
\frac{a}{a^2-2b^2},\frac{b}{a^2-2b^2}\in \mathbb{Z}
then a^2-2b^2=\pm 1?
If you care to see the whole problem, you can find it here:
http://www.math.rochester.edu/courses/236H/home/hw12.pdf
It's #4 part c.
BTW, why is the significance of this "norm map"? I tried to google it for fun, but couldn't find much.