Math_Frank
Feb19-08, 09:57 AM
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Given the odd integral
\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx How do I prove that
f(x) -> 0 for x \to \infty??
3. The attempt at a solution
Is it? For the above to be true, then there exist an \epsilon > 0 such that
|\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx-0| \leq \epsilon?
I am stuck here!
Am I going the right way?
Sincerely
Frank
Given the odd integral
\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx How do I prove that
f(x) -> 0 for x \to \infty??
3. The attempt at a solution
Is it? For the above to be true, then there exist an \epsilon > 0 such that
|\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx-0| \leq \epsilon?
I am stuck here!
Am I going the right way?
Sincerely
Frank