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IniquiTrance
Oct20-09, 09:23 PM
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

How can I prove that:

\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} n^{\frac{1}{n}}=1

Isn't \infty^{0} indeterminate?
Thanks!


2. Relevant equations



3. The attempt at a solution

Dick
Oct20-09, 09:38 PM
Yes, it is indeterminant. That's not the end of the story. Indeterminant just means you don't know what the limit is yet. Take the log. Can you prove (1/n)*log(n) approaches 0?

IniquiTrance
Oct20-09, 09:41 PM
That becomes 0*\infty, isn't that indeterminate as well?

w3390
Oct20-09, 09:42 PM
Can't you use L'Hopital's rule?

IniquiTrance
Oct20-09, 09:43 PM
Right. Thanks guys!