View Full Version : is this ok to prove?
semidevil
Dec4-04, 06:46 PM
so I need to show that in any group, it's elements and inverse has the same order.
so can I say that since it is a group, we know that there exists a unique inverse for each element. So each element would have 1 inverse. And then, that means we have the same number of elements as number of inverses?
does that work? or am I missing something?
Can you state the definition of the order of an element in a group?
semidevil
Dec4-04, 09:47 PM
Can you state the definition of the order of an element in a group?
so the order is the number of elements in a group....
is this suppose to be a hint? :)
lokisapocalypse
Dec4-04, 10:50 PM
semidevil...
The order of an element g in a group G is n such that g^n = identity where n is the smallest positive integer >= 1. To prove an element and its inverse have the same order you can say:
g^n = identity
(g^-1) ^ n = (g^n)^-1 = (identity)^-1 = identity
so the order is the number of elements in a group....
That's the order of the group, not an element. I was hoping to get you to check the definition carefully;).
lokisapocalypse
Dec4-04, 11:17 PM
Heh, sorry shmoe...didn't mean to steal your thunder.
No thunder to be stolen, we're all here to help (or be helped) :smile:
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