Magnetic Field of current carrying straight wire

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around deriving the magnetic field of a current-carrying straight wire using cylindrical coordinates. The original poster seeks a general expression and explores the use of integrals and the Biot-Savart law in their approach.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to set up the problem using cylindrical coordinates and expresses concern about the correctness of their approach before solving the integrals. Some participants suggest using the Biot-Savart law as an alternative method, questioning whether this would simplify the calculations.

Discussion Status

Participants have explored different methods for deriving the magnetic field, with some finding the Biot-Savart law to be a more manageable approach. The original poster has shared their progress but has not reached a conclusion, indicating a willingness to revisit the problem later.

Contextual Notes

There is an indication that the original poster is under time constraints due to an upcoming test and is looking for efficient methods to derive the expression without getting bogged down in lengthy calculations.

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So I get a "cheat" sheet for my upcoming emag test. I would like to have a general expression for the magnetic field of a current carrying wire. Would someone let me know if I am on the right path here.

Lets say we have a section of a current carrying wire that has length [itex]L[/itex]. Let's say there is a point P that is located at [itex]P(\bar r, \bar \phi, \bar z )[/itex]

We will use cylindrical coordinates and denote the bottom of the wire as [itex]0[/itex], and the top of the wire as [itex]L[/itex]. Since we are in cylindrical coordinates, there will be no phi dependence, so the point can be expressed as: [itex]P(\bar r, 0, \bar z)[/itex]

Thus, is my thought process correct here (I don't want to solve these integrals yet, if I am doing something wrong).

Recall:
[tex]\vec A = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi} \oint_{C'} \frac{\vec dl'}{R}[/tex]

Thus, if we break the integral into two contours,
[tex]\vec A = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi} \left( \int_{C'_1} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_1} + \int_{C'_2} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_2} \right)[/tex]

[tex]\int_{C'_1} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_1} = \int_{0}^{\bar z} \frac{\hat z dz'}{\sqrt{z'^2+\bar r^2}}[/tex]
[tex]\int_{C'_2} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_2} = \int_{\bar z}^{L} \frac{\hat z dz'}{\sqrt{[(L-\bar z)-z']^2+\bar r^2}}[/tex]

Now if I solve these two integrals and plug into [itex]\vec A[/itex] and then get [itex]\vec B[/itex] by [itex]\vec B = \nabla \times \vec A[/itex] I should be all set right? (...I hope)
 
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Just use the law of Biot-Savart.
 
Meir Achuz said:
Just use the law of Biot-Savart.

Does that make the math any easier? I'll see what I can do with that, but it seems like it would be easier to do this way. Those integrals are lengthy though (I let Maple solve the more complex one).
 
Ok, I used the Biot-Savart law, and it was surprisingly easier. The derivation was long, so I will not post it unless someone wants to see it. I came up with the following expression though:

[tex]\vec B = \hat \phi \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi \bar r} (\alpha + \beta)[/tex]
[tex]\alpha = \frac{L - \bar z}{\sqrt{\bar r^2 + (\bar z - L)^2}}[/tex]
[tex]\alpha = \frac{\bar z}{\sqrt{\bar r^2 + \bar z^2}}[/tex]

Where the line is from 0 to L, and the point is located at [itex]P(\bar r, \bar phi, \bar z [/tex].<br /> <br /> I used the bar notation to represent constants. This expression could (and probably should) be cleaned up. Maybe taylor expand the sqrt expressions, or apply some type of simplification. I don't think it's beneficial for me to spend so much time on one problem, so I'm just going to drop it for the time being. Thanks for the suggestion Meir Achuz.[/itex]
 

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