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So I get a "cheat" sheet for my upcoming emag test. I would like to have a general expression for the magnetic field of a current carrying wire. Would someone let me know if I am on the right path here.
Lets say we have a section of a current carrying wire that has length [itex]L[/itex]. Let's say there is a point P that is located at [itex]P(\bar r, \bar \phi, \bar z )[/itex]
We will use cylindrical coordinates and denote the bottom of the wire as [itex]0[/itex], and the top of the wire as [itex]L[/itex]. Since we are in cylindrical coordinates, there will be no phi dependence, so the point can be expressed as: [itex]P(\bar r, 0, \bar z)[/itex]
Thus, is my thought process correct here (I don't want to solve these integrals yet, if I am doing something wrong).
Recall:
[tex]\vec A = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi} \oint_{C'} \frac{\vec dl'}{R}[/tex]
Thus, if we break the integral into two contours,
[tex]\vec A = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi} \left( \int_{C'_1} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_1} + \int_{C'_2} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_2} \right)[/tex]
[tex]\int_{C'_1} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_1} = \int_{0}^{\bar z} \frac{\hat z dz'}{\sqrt{z'^2+\bar r^2}}[/tex]
[tex]\int_{C'_2} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_2} = \int_{\bar z}^{L} \frac{\hat z dz'}{\sqrt{[(L-\bar z)-z']^2+\bar r^2}}[/tex]
Now if I solve these two integrals and plug into [itex]\vec A[/itex] and then get [itex]\vec B[/itex] by [itex]\vec B = \nabla \times \vec A[/itex] I should be all set right? (...I hope)
Lets say we have a section of a current carrying wire that has length [itex]L[/itex]. Let's say there is a point P that is located at [itex]P(\bar r, \bar \phi, \bar z )[/itex]
We will use cylindrical coordinates and denote the bottom of the wire as [itex]0[/itex], and the top of the wire as [itex]L[/itex]. Since we are in cylindrical coordinates, there will be no phi dependence, so the point can be expressed as: [itex]P(\bar r, 0, \bar z)[/itex]
Thus, is my thought process correct here (I don't want to solve these integrals yet, if I am doing something wrong).
Recall:
[tex]\vec A = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi} \oint_{C'} \frac{\vec dl'}{R}[/tex]
Thus, if we break the integral into two contours,
[tex]\vec A = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi} \left( \int_{C'_1} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_1} + \int_{C'_2} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_2} \right)[/tex]
[tex]\int_{C'_1} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_1} = \int_{0}^{\bar z} \frac{\hat z dz'}{\sqrt{z'^2+\bar r^2}}[/tex]
[tex]\int_{C'_2} \frac{\vec dl'}{R_2} = \int_{\bar z}^{L} \frac{\hat z dz'}{\sqrt{[(L-\bar z)-z']^2+\bar r^2}}[/tex]
Now if I solve these two integrals and plug into [itex]\vec A[/itex] and then get [itex]\vec B[/itex] by [itex]\vec B = \nabla \times \vec A[/itex] I should be all set right? (...I hope)
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