So in the phrase "drink's victims" drink has in some sense been personalized? As though the victims were attacked by Drink and their addiction is not their fault, whereas "the victims of drink" has no such personalization? Or am I completely off the mark?
This reminds me of the way we use "all" in mathematics. Whenever I read "for all" I sometimes, for a moment, think "all" is being used collectively rather than distributively as a synonym for "each". Though "all" in mathematics is never used collectively no one ever points out this ambiguity of the word. I suppose mathematicians don't care much for English, or maybe it's that many writers of textbooks are not native speakers.
By the way, I've found the article in the second edition of Fowler's Modern English Usage
; I'll type out part of it for anyone who's interested.