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Feb5-12, 12:08 PM
P: 150
In my notes, the following two functions are defined:

Suppose [itex]M^m[/itex] and [itex]N^n[/itex] are smooth manifolds, [itex]F:M \to N[/itex] is smooth and [itex]p \in M[/itex]. We define:
[tex]F^*:C^\infty (F(p)) \to C^\infty (p)\ ,\ F^*(f) = f \circ F[/tex]
[tex]F_{*p}: T_pM \to T_{F(p)}N\ ,\ [F_{*p}(X)](f) = X(F^*f) = X(f \circ F)[/tex]

I understand the first function, [itex]F^*[/itex]; it maps [itex]f[/itex], a function on [itex]C^\infty(F(p))[/itex], to [itex]f \circ F[/itex], a function on [itex]C^\infty(p)[/itex].

However, I don't understand the second one, [itex]F_{*p}[/itex]. Since [itex]X(f) \in T_pM[/itex], it follows that [itex]f \in C^\infty (p)[/itex]. But then how is
[tex][F_{*p}(X)](f) = X(F^*f)[/tex]
defined? After all, in the definition of [itex]F_{*p}(X)[/itex], [itex]f[/itex] is a function on [itex] C^\infty (p)[/itex], not [itex]C^\infty(F(p))[/itex], so how can we evaluate [itex]F^*f[/itex]?
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