
#1
May2511, 03:48 PM

P: 70

In "Does the Inertia of a Body Depend Upon its EnergyContent?" Einstein says that the difference in kinetic energy of a body before and after it releases some energy is...
K(0)K(1)=E(gamma1) In his previous paper, he worked out the kinetic energy of masses as... K=mc^{2}(gamma1) Can't we immediately compare the two equations and conclude that E=mc^2? Why does Einstein bother converting the first equation above into K(0)K(1)=(1/2)(E/c^{2})v^{2} ? It seems to me that this is a less precise method since he had to neglect magnitudes of fourth and higher order to get it. **I know that me writing out gamma looks really dumb but I was having trouble with Latex. 



#2
May2511, 05:51 PM

Emeritus
Sci Advisor
PF Gold
P: 5,500





#3
May2511, 07:50 PM

P: 70





#4
May2511, 11:01 PM

Emeritus
Sci Advisor
PF Gold
P: 5,500

E=mc^2 proof. Why use Newtonian kinetic energy??? 


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