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Stumped on Definite Integral Question |
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| Jun19-12, 02:57 AM | #1 |
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Stumped on Definite Integral Question
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Definite integral, from 0 to 3, of Square root of 1+t^3. 2. Relevant equations Tried substitution 3. The attempt at a solution There should be a simple way to do this but I can't seem to figure it out. Tried the substitution and whatnot but couldn't reach an answer. |
| Jun19-12, 03:38 AM | #2 |
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trig-sub won't work because it should be t^2. You might try u^2=1+t^3, though I haven't tried it so no idea. i would say maybe some extra special clever application of integration by parts, but i wouldn't bet on it. How did the problem arise, are you sure this is the problem you are supposed to do? Is it possible that using a computer is expected? |
| Jun19-12, 03:40 AM | #3 |
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MAPLE output for both the definite and indefinite integral looks ridiculous with all kinds of special functions.
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| Jun19-12, 03:42 AM | #4 |
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Stumped on Definite Integral Question
Same with Wolfram. This integral is not expressable in elementary terms (verified by Risch's algorithm.) It involves the elliptic integral function. If that is acceptable, you can do the problem; but it will still be ridiculously long.
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| Jun19-12, 03:45 AM | #5 |
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| Jun19-12, 03:46 AM | #6 |
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| Jun19-12, 06:16 PM | #7 |
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Well, the actual question is different from the question I asked. I didn't want to post the actual one because I partially solved it. Here it is though if there is in fact a different approach. I did find the derivative and was trying to get f^-1(0) by saying f^-1(0) = x so f(x) = 0, but couldn't solved the integral to be able to equal it to 0 to get x.
If f(x) = integral, from 3 to x , of square root of (1+t^3) dt, find (f^-1)'(0). By the way, I would like to have the simplest and cleanest approach to this to be efficient. Thanks |
| Jun19-12, 06:38 PM | #8 |
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Recognitions:
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Use the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus to figure out [itex]\frac{dy}{dx} = f'(x)[/itex] Now, if [itex]y = f(x)[/itex], then [itex]f^{-1}(y) = x[/itex] and [itex]{(f^{-1})}'(y) = \frac{dx}{dy} = \frac{1}{\frac{dy}{dx}} = \frac{1}{f'(x)}[/itex]. You're asked to determine [itex]{(f^{-1})}'(0)[/itex], so first figure out what (obvious) value of [itex]x[/itex] would make [itex]y[/itex] zero. The rest is trivial. |
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