
#1
Dec1505, 10:40 AM

P: 501

let suppose we have a formula for the mass in the form:
[tex]m=\int_{0}^{\infty}dxf(x)e^{ax} [/tex] [tex]a=ln\epsilon [/tex] with epsilon tending to zero so a is divergent..but if we perform the integral numerically: [tex]m=\sum_{j}w(x_{j})c_{j}f(x_{j})e^{ax_{j}) [/tex] so we could express the quantity a in terms of the mass m so [tex]a=g(m)[/tex] so we could put inside the integral to calculate the m: [tex]m=\int_{0}^{\infty}dxf(x)e^{xg(m)} [/tex] and from this equation obtain a value for the mass m. I Know something similar is made for renormalizable theory..but why can not be made for nonrenormalizable ones?... 


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