# renormalization and divergences....

by eljose
Tags: divergences, renormalization
 P: 501 let suppose we have a formula for the mass in the form: $$m=\int_{0}^{\infty}dxf(x)e^{-ax}$$ $$a=ln\epsilon$$ with epsilon tending to zero so a is divergent..but if we perform the integral numerically: $$m=\sum_{j}w(x_{j})c_{j}f(x_{j})e^{-ax_{j})$$ so we could express the quantity a in terms of the mass m so $$a=g(m)$$ so we could put inside the integral to calculate the m: $$m=\int_{0}^{\infty}dxf(x)e^{-xg(m)}$$ and from this equation obtain a value for the mass m. I Know something similar is made for renormalizable theory..but why can not be made for non-renormalizable ones?...

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