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Fluid Mechanics question (shear stress) |
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| Oct6-06, 08:39 PM | #1 |
| Oct6-06, 09:30 PM | #2 |
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Remeber ln (1/x) = ln (x-1) = - ln x or
ln (a/b) = -ln (b/a). Also, if one opens a spreadsheet, enters x = 0.8 . . . 1.0, by .01, and then plots 1/x vs x, one will see that it looks almost straight. The solution indicates that the plot is almost linear. The radial dimension has been normalized to b, by using r/b for the abscissa. |
| Oct6-06, 10:42 PM | #3 |
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thanks Astronuc, but i still got a few questions.
Why did they do a/b? Is it because the problem wants to know the ratio of velocity distribution between the two cylinders? Also where did r/b come from? The only way i see it is that they substituted ln (b/r) with -ln (r/b), but why? |
| Oct6-06, 11:42 PM | #4 |
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Fluid Mechanics question (shear stress)
Either I'm very tired and can't think, or this solution has a serious problem with negative signes everywhere.
A ratio of a/b=0.8 was picked just as an example for a gap. Using r/b is just a better choice when it comes to interpreting results. When the ratio is 0.8, you're at the inner cylinder (since the smaller cylinder is defined as a/b=0.8), when it's 1, you're at the outer. |
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