actually, i used a slightly different method to solve it, treating it as finding a null-space to
solution of a determinant function at the point (0, 0, 1, 1).
Do you mind taking a look at the new problem I posted?
I'm really struggling with that..
Homework Statement
Let's assume that M is a compact n-dimensional manifold,
then from Whitney's Immersion Theorem,
we know that there's an immersion, f: M -> R_2n, and
let's define f*: TM --> R_2n such that
f* sends (p, v) to df_x (v).
Since f is an immersion, it's clear that f* must be...
yeah... while I believe that
0 1
0 0
0 0
1 0
two traceless matrices should be basis elements of tangent space,
since 2 by 2 matrices having rank 1 can be thought of as 3-dimensional submanifold,
the tangent space must also have 3 basis elements.
so I was wondering maybe...
tracelessness is clearly not required for det(A) = 0.
1 0
0 0 1 1
1 1
are not traceless.
I'm just trying to figure out what formula to use to find out the tangent space at the matrix A.
Does it mean that if B is in tangent space at matrix A, then
BA = 0 ?
or...
true. but with all due respect, you're not adding anything to what I've done so far.
my problem was that I am not quite sure how to prove the existence of z, x such that
they are not equal to each other, and
g(z) > 0 and g(x) < 0 (or g(z) <= 0 and g(x) > 0)
so that I can apply...
yeah, i did that, but i failed to show that g(z) must be zero for some value of z, and
that was exactly the problem I had.
If I can show that if g(z) > 0 for some value of z, then g(x) < 0, for some value of x that's
not equal to z, then I can apply an intermediate value theorem to solve it...
Homework Statement
Let S denote a unit circle centered at origin in xy plane, and
f is a continuous function that sends S to R (no need to be 1 to 1 or onto).
show that there's (x, y) such that f(x, y) = f(-x, -y)
Homework Equations
have a feeling it has something to do with theorems...
Homework Statement let's define {b_n} as an infinite sequence such that
all terms are nonnegative, and
for any i, j >= 1,
b_{i+j} <= b_i + b_j
it's easy to show that b_n/n <= (b_1) for all n, but
how would you show that
{(b_n)/n} is a convergent sequence?Homework Equations
The Attempt at a...