Question about a continuous function on R2

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem involving a continuous function defined on a unit circle in the xy-plane. The task is to demonstrate that there exists a point (x, y) such that the function values at (x, y) and (-x, -y) are equal.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the reduction of the problem to a function of one variable and consider the implications of continuity. Questions arise regarding the behavior of the function g(z) defined as f(z) - f(z + pi) and its potential non-zero values. There is discussion about applying the intermediate value theorem in this context.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing their attempts and challenges in proving the existence of points where g(z) changes sign. Some guidance has been offered regarding the relationship between g(z) and g(z + pi), but no consensus has been reached on the proof itself.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty about the application of the intermediate value theorem in this scenario and the implications of reducing the problem to one dimension.

evalover1987
Messages
14
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Let S denote a unit circle centered at origin in xy plane, and
f is a continuous function that sends S to R (no need to be 1 to 1 or onto).
show that there's (x, y) such that f(x, y) = f(-x, -y)

Homework Equations



have a feeling it has something to do with theorems related to topology.


The Attempt at a Solution



by re-writing S as (cos z, sin z) for 0 <= z < 2 pi
i can reduce f to a function of one variable, f(z), such that
f(z) = - f(z + pi), but then I'm stuck what to do after that.

(or maybe I shouldn't have reduced f to a function of one variable in the first place?)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Reducing it to one variable is fine. And, yes, (x(z+pi),y(z+pi)) is then (-x(z),-y(z)) but how does that tell you anything about the value of f? Try considering g(z)=f(z)-f(z+pi). Can g(z) be nonzero for all values of z? This is more about continuous functions than it is about topology.
 
yeah, i did that, but i failed to show that g(z) must be zero for some value of z, and
that was exactly the problem I had.
If I can show that if g(z) > 0 for some value of z, then g(x) < 0, for some value of x that's
not equal to z, then I can apply an intermediate value theorem to solve it, but
I also forgot how to apply an intermediate value theorem in 2 dimensional case.

Dick said:
Reducing it to one variable is fine. And, yes, (x(z+pi),y(z+pi)) is then (-x(z),-y(z)) but how does that tell you anything about the value of f? Try considering g(z)=f(z)-f(z+pi). Can g(z) be nonzero for all values of z? This is more about continuous functions than it is about topology.
 
evalover1987 said:
yeah, i did that, but i failed to show that g(z) must be zero for some value of z, and
that was exactly the problem I had.
If I can show that if g(z) > 0 for some value of z, then g(x) < 0, for some value of x that's
not equal to z, then I can apply an intermediate value theorem to solve it, but
I also forgot how to apply an intermediate value theorem in 2 dimensional case.

You aren't in the two dimensional case anymore, you reduced it to a function of one variable, z, didn't you? Start thinking in one dimension.
 
Dick said:
You aren't in the two dimensional case anymore, you reduced it to a function of one variable, z, didn't you? Start thinking in one dimension.

true. but with all due respect, you're not adding anything to what I've done so far.
my problem was that I am not quite sure how to prove the existence of z, x such that
they are not equal to each other, and
g(z) > 0 and g(x) < 0 (or g(z) <= 0 and g(x) > 0)
so that I can apply intermediate value theorem.
 
evalover1987 said:
true. but with all due respect, you're not adding anything to what I've done so far.
my problem was that I am not quite sure how to prove the existence of z, x such that
they are not equal to each other, and
g(z) > 0 and g(x) < 0 (or g(z) <= 0 and g(x) > 0)
so that I can apply intermediate value theorem.

Alright, so you need a stronger hint. How is g(z) related to g(z+pi)?
 
Dick said:
Alright, so you need a stronger hint. How is g(z) related to g(z+pi)?

you know what? i solved it. you don't have to continue to reply to this.
plus, it's not a "hint" if it's something that I already proved on my own.
 
evalover1987 said:
you know what? i solved it. you don't have to continue to reply to this.
plus, it's not a "hint" if it's something that I already proved on my own.

Very welcome.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 27 ·
Replies
27
Views
2K
  • · Replies 40 ·
2
Replies
40
Views
5K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K