- #1

evalover1987

- 15

- 0

## Homework Statement

let's define {b_n} as an infinite sequence such thatall terms are nonnegative, and

for any i, j >= 1,

b_{i+j} <= b_i + b_j

it's easy to show that b_n/n <= (b_1) for all n, but

how would you show that

{(b_n)/n} is a convergent sequence?

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

## Homework Statement

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

Using induction, I got upto 0 < = b_n / n < = b_1

but that was pretty much it.

I have to show that it's monotone from some N on or something like that, i think..

but I'm just stuck about how to show that.

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