Recent content by MadHawk

What a mess! Why the answer isn't ln sin pi/4 {pi/4 - sin pi/4} + 1, why? Just curious.

The first condition of this question is similar to that of Drichilet function. Break the condition further from this.

Well, it was just pure innocent fun. The actual quantity under root is (x^2+5)^2 - 96(x+1). From here, I think, it can be done. Sorry folks, for the joke above.

Deduce the area under the curve= p x cot p from 0 to pi/4.

The denominator can be replaced as [{(x^2+5)^2/96 - 1}^2 + 5]^2. P.S. That /96 is to the whole (x^2+5)^2 expression.

Probably, unfamiliarity with the advanced topic is creating the problem. But, as I know, this particular integral is of Fourier Integral Theorem, and it solved from the left to the right i.e. formal tactics of a regular double integration not necessarily followed. This means, this integral does...

Indeed, the question itself provides the answer. When you say, integer, it means if you have f as a function of integers, then it can be easily manipulated into Drichilet functions and/or Dirac-Delta Functions. And, from here, you can use a lot of identities or transforms to achieve what is...

Since, the question involves coefficient of friction and the mass at the surface is double in magnitude, which mathematically yields 8.94N<10N, thus the mass won't move. But if one interchanges the masses then this will have some +ve numerical result.