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i did not mean the scalar curvature but the curvature that is observer-dependent

its not pathological but the curvature.

at the horizon, space is infinitely contracted in the reference frame and then a fourth space dimension(and no time dimension, since the horizon exists only for t=infinite), would be welcome

hi, what do you think that in general relativity, since space is curved, the curvature could be interpreted as a 4th space dimension "hyperspace"? in other words, the 4th space dimension would take the place of time, for a coordinate observer?

hi, i wonder if QM is a theory that is understood?. For example do leading physicists understand why QM is like it is? I remember that Feynman said that nobody understands QM, is that statement true?

why does GR say that all particles are points with zero radius?

hi, I have a very simple question: why is there really a need for more than 4 spacetime dimensions? are there any concepts for which 4 dimensions are not sufficient? thank you!

hello, how can we be sure that quantum physics (uncertainty,superposition) is not a consequence or directly related to special relativity. for example particles spinning faster than light could explain many quantum effects, or i am wrong?

of course i was referring about the coordinate effect: how the spacetime inside the event horizon behaves mathematically in the observer reference frame. in such case, time and space switch roles

thanks, but for the second question i was just wondering if the content of the black hole inside the event horizon is exactly contained in the same 4 spacetime dimensions of the observer. I mean: are only 4 spacetime dimensions required to contain the behavior outside of the event horizon and...

hello, what does exactly mean geometrically that time and space switch roles at the event horizon of a nonrotating black hole?. I understand that the - for time becomes a + and the + for space becomes -, but how to interpret it geometrically? also I want to know if after the event horizon...

ok, and what if, before the measurement, the state of the first particle is modified. would the state of the second particle in entanglement be modified to verify again the correlations?. in other words, does the EPR effect applies even without measurement?

anyway, the question is: does the same happen both before and after measurement?

hi, it is well known that after measurement, there is a superluminal instantaneous influence (but not really communication) in entanglement. I wonder if such influence also happens everytime before measurement as well? i would be very grateful to read your reply!

hi, I would like to know how big can be 2 identical particles? can they be atoms, molecules, or even much larger than this? in the extreme case, can they be 2 identical cars for example? can we also say that any 2 electrons in the universe are identical particles? I would be...