B Do Open Timelike Curves Exist?

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Closed Timelike Curves (CTCs) are theoretical constructs in general relativity that do not violate causality, but their existence remains unproven and purely speculative. Despite inquiries about their nature and potential sources for further reading, no empirical evidence has been found to support their existence. The discussion emphasizes that questions regarding the reality of CTCs are unwelcome, as they have no known relevance to observable phenomena. Participants are encouraged to focus on theoretical literature instead. Ultimately, the consensus is that CTCs are interesting but remain unobserved and hypothetical.
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These are apparently Closed Timelike Curves that don't violate causality, do they exist?
 
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Can you describe what they are better? Or provide a source that discusses them? I've never heard of this terminology.
 
Matterwave said:
Can you describe what they are better? Or provide a source that discusses them? I've never heard of this terminology.
https://arxiv.org/abs/1206.5485
Only big thing I could find on them.
 
TheQuestionGuy14 said:
These are apparently Closed Timelike Curves that don't violate causality, do they exist?
None have been observed.
 
I see these threads from QuestionGuy over and over and over and wonder if I am in a closed timelike curve!
 
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Vanadium 50 said:
I see these threads from QuestionGuy over and over and over and wonder if I am in a closed timelike curve!
@TheQuestionGuy14 V50 is right, this is quite tiresome. If you have questions about the theoretical literature on closed timelike curves then you are welcome to post them here. There is a body of literature on the theory of CTC solutions to GR.

However please stop asking any questions related to their existence. No such curves have been observed, they are purely theoretical. They have no known bearing on reality.

Further posts on CTC existence or reality will be summarily deleted. Thread closed
 
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Thread 'Is using r as a coordinate in Birkhoff's theorem a limitation?'

In Birkhoff’s theorem, doesn’t assuming we can use r (defined as circumference divided by ## 2 \pi ## for any given sphere) as a coordinate across the spacetime implicitly assume that the spheres must always be getting bigger in some specific direction? Is there a version of the proof that doesn’t have this limitation? I’m thinking about if we made a similar move on 2-dimensional manifolds that ought to exhibit infinite order rotational symmetry. A cylinder would clearly fit, but if we...
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