I Need Help on Particle Spin

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All elementary particles possess intrinsic spin or angular momentum, which is influenced by Special Relativity and Quantum Mechanics. The amount of spin is quantified as half-integer multiples of reduced Planck's Constant, with a connection to the spin-statistics theorem distinguishing bosons from fermions. The discussion highlights that while particles are described as having spin, they do not physically rotate; instead, their behavior under Lorentz transformations mimics angular momentum. Confusion arises between the concept of intrinsic spin and spatial rotation, with some participants clarifying that particles cannot actually rotate in a classical sense. Understanding the nature of particle spin requires distinguishing between quantum properties and classical interpretations.
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TL;DR
Why do particles spin all the time?
All elementary particles have an intrinsic spin/angular momentum. The fact that particles spin at all is due to Special Relativity. How MUCH they spin, half-integer multiples of reduced Planck's Constant, is due to Quantum Mechanics. Right?

Apparently, the reason particles spin at all is because two non-colinear Lorentz Boosts are the same as one Lorentz Boost followed by a rotation. How do you go from that to all particles spin all the time?

Thanks in advance.
 
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LarryS said:
All elementary particles have an intrinsic spin/angular momentum.
Except those that don't, such as the Higgs. Unless you're counting spin zero as having "intrinsic spin/angular momentum".

LarryS said:
The fact that particles spin at all is due to Special Relativity.
Why do you think this?

LarryS said:
How MUCH they spin, half-integer multiples of reduced Planck's Constant, is due to Quantum Mechanics. Right?
There is a spin-statistics connection which is believed to be due to quantum field theory, that particles with integer spin are bosons and particles with half-integer spin are fermions.

LarryS said:
Apparently, the reason particles spin at all is because two non-colinear Lorentz Boosts are the same as one Lorentz Boost followed by a rotation.
Where are you getting this from? Do you have a reference?
 
LarryS said:
TL;DR Summary: Why do particles spin all the time?

All elementary particles have an intrinsic spin/angular momentum. The fact that particles spin at all is due to Special Relativity.
In addition to #2:
Elementary particles don't spin. Many of them have non-classical degrees of freedom which are named "spin", because their quantum behavior under application of Lorentz transformations (especially spatial rotations) resembles that of angular momentum. The polarizations of light are a well known example of spin. They readily appear in the classical treatment when we regard light as EM waves. You know that a linear polarization of an EM plan-wave in vacuum doesn't "spin", right?

LarryS said:
Apparently, the reason particles spin at all is because two non-colinear Lorentz Boosts are the same as one Lorentz Boost followed by a rotation.
Could it be that you are confused between spin and Thomas Precession?
 
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LarryS said:
How do you go from that to all particles spin all the time?
This question looks like if you were asking for why are particles spinning, do not confuse spin (intrinsic quantum property) with spatial rotation, particles cannot rotate.
 
We often see discussions about what QM and QFT mean, but hardly anything on just how fundamental they are to much of physics. To rectify that, see the following; https://www.cambridge.org/engage/api-gateway/coe/assets/orp/resource/item/66a6a6005101a2ffa86cdd48/original/a-derivation-of-maxwell-s-equations-from-first-principles.pdf 'Somewhat magically, if one then applies local gauge invariance to the Dirac Lagrangian, a field appears, and from this field it is possible to derive Maxwell’s...