Mutual inductance using bessel function

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating mutual inductance between an antenna and a micro-inductor using Bessel functions. The integral for mutual inductance is expressed as M(a,b,d)=(1.45x10^-8)*integral(J1(1.36x)*J1(0.735x)*exp(-x-13.6))dx from 0 to infinity. Various methods for solving the integral, including the online Mathematica integrator and xmaxima, were attempted but deemed unsuccessful. References to integral tables and Laplace transforms from specific texts were provided as potential solutions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Bessel functions, specifically J1(x)
  • Familiarity with integral calculus and improper integrals
  • Knowledge of Laplace transforms and their applications
  • Experience with mathematical software tools like Mathematica or xmaxima
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties and applications of Bessel functions in electrical engineering
  • Learn how to use Mathematica for solving complex integrals
  • Study integral tables, particularly "Integraltafel, zweiter teil bestimmte integrale" by Grobner-Hofreiter
  • Explore the use of Laplace transforms in solving differential equations
USEFUL FOR

Electrical engineering students, researchers in electromagnetic theory, and professionals working on antenna design and analysis will benefit from this discussion.

salla2
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Hi, I am en electrical engineering grad student and I have to solve an equation to calculate the mutual inductance between an antenna and a micro-inductor. I think it is a Bessel equations but I don't know how to solve.

M(a,b,d)=(1.45x10^-8)*integral(J1(1.36x)*J1(0.735x)*exp(-x-13.6))dx
the integration is from 0 to infinity


Please help!
 
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Hello salla2,

I have rewritten your problem as:

I=d e^{-c} \cdot \int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x}J_1(ax)J_1(bx)dx

Leaving out the factor before the integral it comes down to:

I=\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x}J_1(ax)J_1(bx)dx

This is not easy. I tried several ways.

*) The online mathematica integrator: NOK
*) xmaxima: NOK
*) The following integral book:
"Integraltafel, zweiter teil bestimmte integrale" by grobner - hofreiter
gives on page 203 the following formula:

\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-ax}J_{v}(bx)J_{v}(cx)dx=\frac{1}{\pi\sqrt{bc}}Q_{v-\frac{1}{2}}<br /> \left( \frac{a^2+b^2+c^2}{2bc}\right)
Q_{v-\frac{1}{2}}(z)=\frac{\sqrt{2\pi}\Gamma\left(v+\frac{1}{2}\right)}<br /> {2^{v+1}\Gamma\left(v+1\right)} \cdot z^{-v-\frac{1}{2}}<br /> F\left(\frac{2v+1}{4},\frac{2v+3}{4},v+1;\frac{1}{z^2}\right)
Which is a "Legendresche Function" F is the hypergeometric series.

*) The following book:
"Table of Laplace Transforms" by Roberts and Kaufman
gives on page 57, the following function for the Laplace transform of J_{v}(at)J_{v}(bt)
which can be used considering the definition of the Laplace transform, s is then afterwards set to 1.

\frac{1}{\pi\sqrt{ab}}Q_{v-\frac{1}{2}}<br /> \left( \frac{s^2+a^2+b^2}{2ab}\right)
The definition of Q_{v-\frac{1}{2}} was given as:
Q_v^{\mu}(x)=\frac{e^{\mu \pi i}\pi^{1/2}\Gamma\left(\mu+v+1\right)(x^2-1)^{\mu/2}}<br /> {2^{v+1}\Gamma\left(v+\frac{3}{2}\right)x^{\mu +v+1}} \cdot {\left.}_2F_1{\right.}<br /> \left[\frac{\mu+v+1}{2},\frac{\mu+v+2}{2};v+\frac{3}{2};\frac{1}{x^2}\right]
In which \mu=0

I can't help you any further on this, hope it helps a bit. It is a difficult question...

coomast
 
I didn't understand a single word but thanks for your help anyway!
 

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