Mutual inductance using bessel function

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The discussion focuses on calculating mutual inductance between an antenna and a micro-inductor using Bessel functions. The original equation involves an integral of the product of Bessel functions and an exponential decay function, which is challenging to solve. Various methods, including online integrators and reference books on integrals and Laplace transforms, were attempted but did not yield results. A specific formula from integral tables was provided, which could potentially assist in solving the problem. The complexity of the equation remains acknowledged, indicating the difficulty of the task at hand.
salla2
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Hi, I am en electrical engineering grad student and I have to solve an equation to calculate the mutual inductance between an antenna and a micro-inductor. I think it is a Bessel equations but I don't know how to solve.

M(a,b,d)=(1.45x10^-8)*integral(J1(1.36x)*J1(0.735x)*exp(-x-13.6))dx
the integration is from 0 to infinity


Please help!
 
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Hello salla2,

I have rewritten your problem as:

I=d e^{-c} \cdot \int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x}J_1(ax)J_1(bx)dx

Leaving out the factor before the integral it comes down to:

I=\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x}J_1(ax)J_1(bx)dx

This is not easy. I tried several ways.

*) The online mathematica integrator: NOK
*) xmaxima: NOK
*) The following integral book:
"Integraltafel, zweiter teil bestimmte integrale" by grobner - hofreiter
gives on page 203 the following formula:

\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-ax}J_{v}(bx)J_{v}(cx)dx=\frac{1}{\pi\sqrt{bc}}Q_{v-\frac{1}{2}}<br /> \left( \frac{a^2+b^2+c^2}{2bc}\right)
Q_{v-\frac{1}{2}}(z)=\frac{\sqrt{2\pi}\Gamma\left(v+\frac{1}{2}\right)}<br /> {2^{v+1}\Gamma\left(v+1\right)} \cdot z^{-v-\frac{1}{2}}<br /> F\left(\frac{2v+1}{4},\frac{2v+3}{4},v+1;\frac{1}{z^2}\right)
Which is a "Legendresche Function" F is the hypergeometric series.

*) The following book:
"Table of Laplace Transforms" by Roberts and Kaufman
gives on page 57, the following function for the Laplace transform of J_{v}(at)J_{v}(bt)
which can be used considering the definition of the Laplace transform, s is then afterwards set to 1.

\frac{1}{\pi\sqrt{ab}}Q_{v-\frac{1}{2}}<br /> \left( \frac{s^2+a^2+b^2}{2ab}\right)
The definition of Q_{v-\frac{1}{2}} was given as:
Q_v^{\mu}(x)=\frac{e^{\mu \pi i}\pi^{1/2}\Gamma\left(\mu+v+1\right)(x^2-1)^{\mu/2}}<br /> {2^{v+1}\Gamma\left(v+\frac{3}{2}\right)x^{\mu +v+1}} \cdot {\left.}_2F_1{\right.}<br /> \left[\frac{\mu+v+1}{2},\frac{\mu+v+2}{2};v+\frac{3}{2};\frac{1}{x^2}\right]
In which \mu=0

I can't help you any further on this, hope it helps a bit. It is a difficult question...

coomast
 
I didn't understand a single word but thanks for your help anyway!
 

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