I read about 1/f noise. It says it is inversely proportional to frequency. What would happen at zero frequency or dc? Will it go to infinity? But when we measure some dc value we don't find any infinite voltage which clearly disproves this equation. What is the reason behind this?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks in advance

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# 1/f noise at zero frequency or dc

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