D H said:
"All the judge ruled on is that the case could proceed. It wasn't a judgement of guilt or innocence...that's the point of the trial he's permitting."
Multiple posters here have missed this point.
I'd be surprised if anyone reading the article actually missed the point that a judgement of guilt or innocence has not been given. It's too obvious to miss, and assumes someone doesn't know the purpose of a trial (not likely for PF members). What is clear is that a judgement that a 4 year old can be legally sued in court for negligence has been made, and that is a very big deal and worthy of discussion.
D H said:
"It's probably a technicality of the law that the child committed the act, so needs to be named in the suit, even though the primary responsibility is in the hands of the parents or other adults present to supervise the actions of the child, which is why they are also being named in the case."
A whole lot of posters here have missed this point.
Those that missed this point are correct to miss it because it is a fallacy. A suit can proceed against the parents solely, and so there is no "need" to name the child. The judge is just allowing more options for the plaintiff's side to make its case. The plaintiff apparently "wants" this option for a few reasons. Ultimately, the court could find that the parents were not negligent and the child was (which is unlikely, but still possible), in which case the plaintiff would lose if the child was not named, or if the judge did not allow the child to be named. Also, what a great bargaining chip to force a settlement, which is a point I made initially. However, there is also the risk of a backfire if this goes to a jury trial, for the obvious reason that the jury members may be biased against the plaintiff if they see the child named (technically, they shouldn't do that, but this is going to be a sore spot with some people).
An important point in this matter is that there is no "bright line rule" about the possibility of negligence of a 4 year old (the bright line rule only says if under 4 years old, and says nothing about 4 and older). The judge could very easily have opted to not allow the child to be named in the suit, and indeed that would be the usual choice of 99% of judges. Even the existence of a bright line rule does not force the judge to use that as the standard, if there are special circumstances. The lack of a bright line does not force the judge to allow the case, nor is there a need for a precedent to be set by this case. Other states have much higher age limits for negligence (7, 14, or even 17), and the judge can draw on this knowledge, or common sense to make a ruling. The reason why we are even talking about this is because the ruling is unusual and overtly against the usual norms and expectations. So, is the judge off-base, or does the case have some unusual aspects to it that we don't know about? I guess time will tell.
If we want to talk about a point that may have been missed by some people, then we should stress that this case is ostensibly not about whether the children deliberately hit the women, because this would be malice and not negligence, which is a completely different legal standard. If the judge is allowing this because there is a possibility of malice on the part of the child, then we have been misled by the public information available. There are plenty of precedents of children sued for malice. I can't find any at age 4, but there is a well known case against a child at age 5, which puts a "malice bright line (actually in a different state, but still relevant)" only 3 months different from the actual age in this case.