- #1

- 258

- 32

_{i}= 1) is

n

_{i}= 1 / (exp

^{(ui - μ)β}- 1)

This is a reasonable and well defined distribution as far as I can see.

On the other hand the number of possibilities to realize a given distribution of bosons among k energy levels with g

_{i}states in level i is given by

W = ∏

_{i = 1 to k}(n

_{i}+ g

_{i}-1)! / (n

_{i}! (g

_{i}-1)!)

If g

_{i}= 1 for all i then W = 1 no matter what the n

_{i}are. In other words all distributions are equally likely.

How can the BE-distribution be well defined then for this case?