A part in a solution for exercise 1.24 from Atiyah-MacDonald

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In the part below where the author of this solution, wants to show that: ##a\vee (b\wedge c)=(a\vee b)\wedge (a\vee c)##, in the third equality he adds ##2ac+2ab+2abc=2a\wedge(b\vee c)##; can someone explain to me why can we do this here?
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In a Boolean ring ##a^2=a##, so ##2x=(2x)^2=4x^2=4x##, therefore ##2x=0##.
 
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Yes, I forgot about it.
Got confused between rings,algebras and lattices... :oldbiggrin:
 

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