Hi Physics Forumers! I was listenining to the Feynman lectures and something Feynman said got me thinking. He was talking about the indeterminacy that exists in classical physics due to our uncertainty in the initial conditions: I was wondering how he derived this. So I thought I would turn this into a challenge to the people on physics forums: Derive (or refute) what Feynman says in this quote! Make any assumptions you need to and use whatever level of physics you know. I'll post what I came up with after some people (hopefully) post their answer.