- #1

- 410

- 12

I have a question about this very last inequality at the end:

[itex]\therefore \displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{a^n}{n!}\right)} = 0[/itex] and for sufficiently large [itex]

n, \dfrac{a^n\pi^{n+1}}{n!} \lt 1[/itex]

How did they get that "less than 1" bit?

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