In Griffith's Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, on page 56, he says that for scattering states(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

(E > 0), the general solution for the Dirac delta potential function V(x) = -aδ(x) (once plugged into the Schrodinger Equation), is the following: ψ(x) = Ae^(ikx) + Be^(-ikx), where k = (√2mE)/h. After that, he states that in the general solution for ψ(x) (stated above), both terms do NOT blow up in the section of the well where x < 0. But this doesn't make sense, because earlier, when he was demonstrating bound states (E < 0) , he stated that the second term, Be^(-ikx), blows up at infinity when x < 0. But here, for scattering states, he states that NEITHER term blows up as x < 0, which seems contradictory. Could anyone explain why this is true (why neither term blows up for a scattering state, when x < 0)? Thanks!

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# A question about Dirac Delta Potential Well solution

Loading...

Similar Threads - question Dirac Delta | Date |
---|---|

I Questions about the Dirac delta | Jul 25, 2017 |

I Question(s) about Dirac notation | Apr 3, 2017 |

I A question on Bose enhancement & Pauli blocking | Aug 7, 2016 |

I Question regarding the Dirac delta function | Apr 9, 2016 |

Question about the solutions of the dirac equation | Sep 20, 2014 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**