Rick16
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- TL;DR
- an integral with a strange variable of integration
I have the equation ##F^x=m\frac {d}{dt}(\gamma v^x)##, where ##\gamma## is the Lorentz factor, and ##x## is a superscript, not an exponent. In my textbook the solution is given as ##\frac {F^x}{m}t=\frac {v^x}{\sqrt {1-v^{x^2}/c^2}}##.
What bothers me is, when I separate the variables I get ##\frac {F^x}{m}dt=d(\gamma v^x)##. Can I simply consider ##d(\gamma v^x)## the variable of integration without any further considerations? Can I simply make the substitution ##\gamma v^x = u## and then write ##\frac {F^x}{m}\int_0^t\,dt=\int_0^u\,du##? The solution would then be ##\frac {F^x}{m}t=u=\gamma v^x## as in the book. Is it really that simple? I feel uneasy about this because of the twofold dependence of ##\gamma v^x## on ##v^x##.
What bothers me is, when I separate the variables I get ##\frac {F^x}{m}dt=d(\gamma v^x)##. Can I simply consider ##d(\gamma v^x)## the variable of integration without any further considerations? Can I simply make the substitution ##\gamma v^x = u## and then write ##\frac {F^x}{m}\int_0^t\,dt=\int_0^u\,du##? The solution would then be ##\frac {F^x}{m}t=u=\gamma v^x## as in the book. Is it really that simple? I feel uneasy about this because of the twofold dependence of ##\gamma v^x## on ##v^x##.