A sequence can be start by the a2term?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around whether a sequence can be defined starting from the second term (a2) without explicitly defining the first term (a1). Participants explore the implications of this on the definition of sequences and subsequences in mathematics.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants argue that a sequence can start with any term, suggesting that the first term is merely a label.
  • Others contend that defining a sequence without the first term contradicts the formal definition of a sequence as a function from natural numbers to real numbers.
  • It is proposed that a sequence excluding the first term can still be defined by mapping natural numbers to subsequent terms, such as using a mapping from n to a_{n+1}.
  • Some participants assert that what is described as starting from a2 is actually a subsequence of the original sequence, which raises questions about adherence to the definition of a sequence.
  • There is a challenge regarding the correct application of the definition of subsequences in this context.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether a sequence can validly start from a2 without defining a1. The discussion remains unresolved, with competing interpretations of the definitions involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference the formal definitions of sequences and functions, highlighting potential limitations in understanding and applying these definitions correctly.

erogol
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Can i define a sequence which starts with a2. term or i must define the first term a1 as well
 
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You can call the first term anything you want. It is merely a label.
 
erogol said:
Can i define a sequence which starts with a2. term or i must define the first term a1 as well

A sequence of real Nos is a function ,from the natural Nos N to the real Nos R.

But a function from N TO R IS according to the definition of a function a subset of NxR ,such that for all nεN ,there exists a unique xεR ,SUCH that (n,x) BELONGS to the function.

So if you ignore the 1st member ,strictly speaking you go against the definition of the sequence
 
poutsos.A said:
A sequence of real Nos is a function ,from the natural Nos N to the real Nos R.

But a function from N TO R IS according to the definition of a function a subset of NxR ,such that for all nεN ,there exists a unique xεR ,SUCH that (n,x) BELONGS to the function.

So if you ignore the 1st member ,strictly speaking you go against the definition of the sequence

Not really, [itex]\{a_n\}_{n=1}^\infty \backslash \{a_1\}[/itex] is still a sequence, just take the map [itex]n \mapsto a_{n+1}[/itex]. It is perfectly well defined.
 
Focus said:
Not really, [itex]\{a_n\}_{n=1}^\infty \backslash \{a_1\}[/itex] is still a sequence, just take the map [itex]n \mapsto a_{n+1}[/itex]. It is perfectly well defined.

What you have written is a subsequence of the sequence {[tex]a_{n}[/tex]}.So if you start the sequence { [tex]a_{n}[/tex]} from the No 2 ,lets say , the subsequence will start from ,2 as well ,hence violating the definition of the sequence
 
poutsos.A said:
What you have written is a subsequence of the sequence {[tex]a_{n}[/tex]}.So if you start the sequence { [tex]a_{n}[/tex]} from the No 2 ,lets say , the subsequence will start from ,2 as well ,hence violating the definition of the sequence

Did you even read my post? It fits your definition perfectly.
 
Use the definition of the subsequence correctly
 

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