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I am having problems with the inverse function theorem.

In some books it says to be locally inversible: first C1, 2nd Jacobian determinant different from 0

And I saw some books say to be locally inversible, it suffices to change the 2NDto "F'(a) is bijective"..

How could these two be equivalent.

Thank you for your kindness in advance,

Sincerely

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# About the Jacobian determinant and the bijection

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