Affine Algebraic Sets - D&F Chapter 15, Section 15.1 - Example 3 - pag

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I am reading Dummit and Foote Ch 15, Commutative Rings and Algebraic Geometry. In Section 15.1 Noetherian Rings and Affine Algebraic Sets, Example 3 on page 660 reads as follows: (see attachment)

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Let [itex]V = \mathcal{Z}(x^3 - y^2)[/itex] in [itex]\ \ \mathbb{A}^2[/itex].

If [itex](a, b) \in \mathbb{A}^2[/itex] is an element of V, then [itex]a^3 = b^2[/itex].

If [itex]a \ne 0[/itex], then also [itex]b \ne 0[/itex] and we can write[itex]a = (b/a)^2, \ b = (b/a)^3[/itex].

It follows that V is the set [itex]\{ (a^2, a^3) \ | \ a \in k \}[/itex].

For any polynomial [itex]f(x,y) \in k[x,y][/itex]. we can write [itex]f(x,y) = f_0(x) + f_1(x)y + (x^3 - y^2)g(x,y)[/itex]

... ... ... etc etc

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I cannot follow the line of reasoning:

"For any polynomial [itex]f(x,y) \in k[x,y][/itex]. we can write [itex]f(x,y) = f_0(x) + f_1(x)y + (x^3 - y^2)g(x,y)[/itex]"

Can anyone clarify why this is true and why D&F are taking this step?

Peter
 
It suffices to prove this for ##f(x,y) = x^n y^m##.

We prove it by induction on ##m##:
For ##m=0##, take ##f_0(x) = x^n## and the rest ##0##.
For ##m=1##, take ##f_1(x) = x^n## and the rest ##0##.

If it holds for ##m<m^\prime##, then write ##x^n y^m = - x^ny^{m-2} (x^3 - y^2 ) - x^{n+3}y^{m-2}##.
By induction, express ##x^{n+3}y^{m-2}## in the required form, then you can also express ##x^n y^m## in such form.
 
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Thank you so much for your help with this problem

I had nearly given up on it, and with it my progress into algebraic geometry!

So thanks again!

Peter
 

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