(Algebra) Quantum Theory - Cauchy-Schwartz inequality proof

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof of the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality within the context of quantum theory, specifically using arbitrary vectors |\phi_{1}\rangle and |\phi_{2}\rangle in the inner product space \mathcal{H}. The inequality is expressed as |\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle|^{2} \leq \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle \langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle. The minimization of the expression \langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle, defined as |\phi_{1}\rangle + \lambda|\phi_{2}\rangle, leads to the conclusion that the optimal value of \lambda is \lambda_{min} = -\frac{\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle}{\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle}. The discussion highlights the importance of correctly computing the real and imaginary parts of the inner products involved.

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Homework Statement


Given two arbitrary vectors |\phi_{1}\rangle and |\phi_{2}\rangle belonging to the inner product space \mathcal{H}, the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality states that:

|\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle|^{2} \leq \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle \langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle.

Consider |\Psi\rangle = |\phi_{1}\rangle + \lambda|\phi_{2}\rangle

where \lambda is a complex number that can be written as \lambda = a + ib.

a) Write an expression for \langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle \geq 0 as a function of \lambda then rewrite as a function of a and b (f(a,b)).

b) Show that the value of \lambda that minimises \langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle is:

\lambda_{min} = -\frac{\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle}{\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle}.

Hint: Compute the derivatives of f(a,b) wrt a and b, solve these to get a_{min} and b_{min} and then compute \lambda_{min}.

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



I get \langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle = \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle + a(\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle + \langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle) + ib(\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle - \langle\phi_{2}\phi_{1}\rangle) + (a^{2} + b^{2})\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle = f(a,b). However I can only show:

\lambda_{min} = -\frac{\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle}{\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle},

by combining Re and I am parts in f(a,b) as follows (and finding the relevant derivatives etc.):

\langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle = \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle + 2a\textrm{Re}(\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle) + 2b\textrm{Im}(\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle) + (a^{2} + b^{2})\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle.

This is the only way I understand how to do it, however, in the solutions for this problem the collection of Re and I am parts is done as follows which I don't understand (in particular the imaginary part):

\langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle = \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle + 2a\textrm{Re}(\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle) + 2b\textrm{Im}(\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle) + (a^{2} + b^{2})\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle

Thank you
 
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Anyone? Parts 1) and 2) can pretty much be ignored they just provide context for the problem.. I think ultimately it's just a complex number/conjugation question which I haven't understood properly.
 

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