Algebra questions, (emergency)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the properties of homomorphisms in group theory, specifically focusing on the homomorphisms from the group of integers \(\mathbb{Z}\) onto itself. It is established that there are exactly two homomorphisms: \(\phi(x) = x\) and \(\phi(x) = e\), where \(e\) is the identity element. The participants clarify that \(\mathbb{Z}\) operates under addition, not multiplication, which is crucial for understanding its structure as an infinite cyclic group. Additionally, it is confirmed that if \(G\) is a finite group, then the image \(|\phi[G]|\) is also finite and a divisor of \(|G|\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of group theory concepts, particularly homomorphisms
  • Familiarity with cyclic groups and their properties
  • Knowledge of finite and infinite sets in mathematics
  • Basic understanding of the notation and operations in algebra, specifically additive notation for groups
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of group homomorphisms in detail
  • Learn about cyclic groups and their applications in algebra
  • Explore the concept of image and kernel in group theory
  • Investigate the relationship between group orders and homomorphic images
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Mathematics students, educators, and anyone studying abstract algebra, particularly those interested in group theory and homomorphism properties.

futurebird
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1. How many homomorphism are there of \mathbb{Z} onto \mathbb{Z}?

Answer from the book: 2

I don't know why this is the answer! Is it because the only homomorphism possible are \phi(x) = x and \phi(x) = e (where e is the identity) ?

Anything else won't work, for example: if
\phi(x)=2x

then \phi(xy) = 2xy

and \phi(x)\phi(y) = 2x2y

2xy \neq 2x2y. ?

Or should I be using additive notation because \mathbb{Z} is the set of integers?

:confused:

Okay next question:

2. Let \phi: G \rightarrow G' be a group homomorphism. Show that if |G| is finite, then |\phi[G]| is finite and is a divisor of |G|.

Homomorphisms don't need to be one-to-one or onto, so I'm havinga hard time seeing why this must be true. Why can't each element in G map to an infinite number of items in G'? My book uses a diagram that suggests that this kind of mapping is like a projection to the x axis, so the set G may have two dimensions, but the set G' has only one. I don't see why this has to be the case, though ...
 
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1. First, the integers aren't even a group under multiplication. So you should be using addition as your operation. Under addition the integers are an (infinite) cyclic group. What does that tell you?

2. I'm not sure what you mean by mapping to an infinite number of items. But for the first part you can ignore that it's a homomorphism, how big can the image of a finite set under some function be? For the second part, you have to assume G' is finite to make sense of the order of the image being a divisor of the order of G'. As for why it divides, what structure does the image of a homomorphism have in the group in which it's contained?
 

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