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On page 333 in Section 52: The Fundamental Group (Topology by Munkres) Munkres writes: (see attachement giving Munkres pages 333-334)
"Suppose that [itex]h: X \rightarrow Y[/itex] is a continuous map that carries the point [itex]x_0[/itex] of X to the point [itex]y_0[/itex] of Y.
We denote this fact by writing:
[itex]h: ( X, x_0) \rightarrow (Y, y_0)[/itex]
If f is a loop in X based at [itex]x_0[/itex] , then the composite [itex]h \circ f : I \rightarrow Y[/itex] is a loop in Y based at [itex]y_0[/itex]"
I am confused as to how this works ... can someone help with the formal mechanics of this.
To illustrate my confusion, consider the following ( see my diagram and text in atttachment "Diagram ..." )
Consider a point [itex]i^'[/itex] [itex]\in [0, 1][/itex] that is mapped by f into [itex]x^'[/itex] i.e. [itex]f( i^{'} )[/itex] [itex]= x^'[/itex]
Then we would imagine that [itex]i^'[/itex] is mapped by [itex]h \circ f[/itex] into some corresponding point [itex]y^'[/itex] ( see my diagram and text in atttachment "Diagram ..." )
i.e. [itex]h \circ f (i^{'} )[/itex] [itex]= y^'[/itex]
BUT
[itex]h \circ f (i^{'} ) = h(f(i^{'} )) = h(x^{'} )[/itex]
But (see above) we only know of h that it maps [itex]x_0[/itex] into [itex]y_0[/itex]? {seems to me that is not all we need to know about h?}
Can anyone please clarify this situation - preferably formally and explicitly?
Peter
"Suppose that [itex]h: X \rightarrow Y[/itex] is a continuous map that carries the point [itex]x_0[/itex] of X to the point [itex]y_0[/itex] of Y.
We denote this fact by writing:
[itex]h: ( X, x_0) \rightarrow (Y, y_0)[/itex]
If f is a loop in X based at [itex]x_0[/itex] , then the composite [itex]h \circ f : I \rightarrow Y[/itex] is a loop in Y based at [itex]y_0[/itex]"
I am confused as to how this works ... can someone help with the formal mechanics of this.
To illustrate my confusion, consider the following ( see my diagram and text in atttachment "Diagram ..." )
Consider a point [itex]i^'[/itex] [itex]\in [0, 1][/itex] that is mapped by f into [itex]x^'[/itex] i.e. [itex]f( i^{'} )[/itex] [itex]= x^'[/itex]
Then we would imagine that [itex]i^'[/itex] is mapped by [itex]h \circ f[/itex] into some corresponding point [itex]y^'[/itex] ( see my diagram and text in atttachment "Diagram ..." )
i.e. [itex]h \circ f (i^{'} )[/itex] [itex]= y^'[/itex]
BUT
[itex]h \circ f (i^{'} ) = h(f(i^{'} )) = h(x^{'} )[/itex]
But (see above) we only know of h that it maps [itex]x_0[/itex] into [itex]y_0[/itex]? {seems to me that is not all we need to know about h?}
Can anyone please clarify this situation - preferably formally and explicitly?
Peter
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