An effort to solve Zeno's motion Paradoxes

[quartodeciman]

Canute,

I will think about it. Up front, it seems like a reduction to the stadion paradox.

The truth is, I tend to visualize discrete space as a kind of pinball display light sequence, where the sequence is actually of spatial states rather than motion as we normally think of it. In case you concluded that I favor discrete space, I declare my allegiance to continua for both space and time, in spite of quantum theories. But I favor considerations of both pictures. I think the Pythagoreans would not have uncovered irrational relationships if they had not held to a starting philosophy of numerical discreteness and fixed whole number ratios of sides to begin with.

Regards,

 

[Canute]

Interesting. If you are saying that our phenomenal world must be understood (at an everyday level) in terms of quanta but that ultimately it is a continuum then I agree.

But this leaves a metaphysical question. How do you get around the fact that if spacetime is a continuum then it reduces to nothing at the limit, and cannot be said to have any ultimate existence.

Canute

 

[quartodeciman]

I am not overwhelmed by questions of existence. I think of all theoretical thought as attempted representations. What there is to be got out of it, payoffs with predicted phenomena of sorts, is what matters. I am not much of a philosophical realist. Ultimate reality may have to remain shrouded forever.

 

[Canute]

Fair enough. Thanks for the discussion this far anyway.

 

[quartodeciman]

And my thanks to you.

 

[olde drunk]

How do you get around the fact that if spacetime is a continuum then it reduces to nothing at the limit, and cannot be said to have any ultimate existence.

good point, perhaps we do not really exist as we have come to define existence? maybe this world is only an experience that we believe to be real. all is energy! within this(our) framework the energy is experienced as physical/real. next step, we want the particle at either point P1 or at Px, as energy, it is there, instantly.

next question, what the hell is energy? lol

peace,

 

[Canute]

Originally posted by olde drunk
good point,

Thanks. I really didn't expect anyone to think so.

perhaps we do not really exist as we have come to define existence?

I'd say it's a lot more certain than just perhaps.

maybe this world is only an experience that we believe to be real.

But you can't deny that the experience does exist. As you say, the defintion of 'exists' is the big issue.

all is energy!

I can't agree with that. Energy exists in the usual scientific sense. Therefore it cannot be the thing that 'exists' outside our normal definition of existence.

next question, what the hell is energy? lol

I think it's possible that science is right and energy really is simply the ability to do work, rather than being a 'thing', in other words it's a property rather than an essence. It seems to make sense. If it was a thing then how could the net energy of the physical universe be zero?

 

[Sikz]

stadion paradox: A, B and C are blocks of space, like train carriages. Block A moves rightward one unit of space per unit of time with respect to B. Block C moves leftward one unit of space per unit of time with respect to B. The speeds of A and C with respect to B are maximal values, since nothing can move faster than one unit of space per unit of time (otherwise, a minimum unit of time can be subdivided). But A moves rightward two units of space per unit time with respect to C. C moves leftward two units of space per unit time with respect to A. That is paradoxical.

Why can nothing move faster than one unit of space per unit of time? Why can't something move two units of space in one unit of time? There is no need to draw from that idea the concept of it moving 1 unit of space in 0.5 units of time... It simply skips the 1 unit marker.

Here's what I propose: Space and time are like a computer monitor- based on a "pixel" (atomic-like) structure. However, using the computer monitor analogy, think of this: Graphics displayed on the monitor do not require to be a whole number of pixels. Something can move at a speed of 1.3 pixels a milisecond (the 3 is actually repeating). Here's how that movement would look:

Actual Displayed
0.0 0
1.3 1
2.6 2
4.0 4
5.3 5
6.6 6
8.0 8

Displayed position on a monitor is equal to actual position in the universe. It doesn't matter if a particle's "true" (imaginary) position is 1.3; it interacts with other particles and exerts a gravitational field as if its location was 1. The only difference between imaginary positions and actual positions is in velocities- you can see from the example the imaginary velocity of 1.3 per 1 results in the skipping over of points 3, 7, etc. Therefore over a large distance imaginary velocities become obvious, but over short distances their effects are minimal.

That seems to resolve Zeno's paradoxes quite well without creating new paradoxes, doesn't it? Or does someone have a counterargument?

 

[Canute]

Your theory implies that motion can be instantaneous (more than one quanta traveled in one instant) or that physical quanta in motion have no precise location and are smeared across spacetime (partly at one location and partly at another).

This is inevitable in any theory of motion based on quantised spacetime, as QM illustrates.

 

[selfAdjoint]

Originally posted by Canute
Your theory implies that motion can be instantaneous (more than one quanta traveled in one instant) or that physical quanta in motion have no precise location and are smeared across spacetime (partly at one location and partly at another).

This is inevitable in any theory of motion based on quantised spacetime, as QM illustrates.

QM sensa strictu does not quantize spacetime, RQFT quantizes fields within spacetime, but continues to posit continuous (Minkowski) spacetime.

 

[Canute]

Originally posted by selfAdjoint
QM sensa strictu does not quantize spacetime, RQFT quantizes fields within spacetime, but continues to posit continuous (Minkowski) spacetime.

Can you unpack that a bit. I know cosmologist like to see the early universe as an ideal condensate, but I've never quite understood how this squares with Planck lengths and the like.

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

Zeno's paradoxes are based upon "addition in a series", yet Zeno's examples always(?) include division, usually by 2 (a halving) and we know (from Computer Science) that division is simply a (more complex?) form of subtraction, hence we can see that to 'add a series' while including the subversive subtraction, causes the appearance of a paradox to arise.

 

[Canute]

I've no idea whether that's true or not but it doesn't matter. What matters is that Zeno raised a paradoxical issue, whether or not he chose the best way of illustrating it.

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

Originally posted by Canute
I've no idea whether that's true or not but it doesn't matter. What matters is that Zeno raised a paradoxical issue, whether or not he chose the best way of illustrating it.

Matters to me cause it is simply a bit of a math trick and I have this thing about people, people who fool people (start singing...HUH?)

 

[Canute]

Originally posted by Mr. Robin Parsons
Matters to me cause it is simply a bit of a math trick and I have this thing about people, people who fool people (start singing...HUH?)

What's a trick? Zeno's paradox? You might like to read back through the posts - that criticism was dealt with a while back.

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

Originally posted by Canute
What's a trick? Zeno's paradox? You might like to read back through the posts - that criticism was dealt with a while back.

In simple truth, in mathematics, there are only two (2) operations that can be performed, Addition and Subtraction, 'multiplication' and 'Division' are simply "Tabled" manners of doing addition and subtraction...NOW to claim that you are adding a series and to be constantly SUBTRACTING (Division by 2) is to fool yourself!

 

[Canute]

Fair enough.

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

It lies simply in the idea of there being an infinite number of numbers between zero and one, normally we do not attempt to count to one by counting all of the possible numbers in between as we know we would never get there...this approximates what Zeno's methodology does/accomplishes, gets you to try counting to a specified point and preconditions the math such that the opportunity to reach that outcome is precluded...a bit like the "Tree falling in the woods.." thingy as the very next statement precludes any kind of realistic responce, "..with nothing there to hear/record it.." then "what does it sound like?" a question that precludes proper respociveness by insertion of a conditional statement that 'precludes' the, then, following question...

Tell me, My Moral Rights, will they be respected?

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

Scuza..(but)...

for Quoting myself...
Tell me, My Moral Rights, will they be respected?

...This time...?

 

[Canute]

Is that to me? I'm afraid I don't underastand what you're talking about.

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

Originally posted by Canute
Is that to me? No![/color] I'm afraid I don't underastand what you're talking about.

Sorry...

 

[scott]

My simple understanding is this - the paradox says that becuse you have to cross an infinite number of "halfway" points on your journey from point A to point B, you'll never reach point B. This fails to consider that because the distance from point A to point B is fixed, and speed is fixed, the successive subdivisions must necessarily become smaller and smaller, requiring a smaller and smaller amount of time to traverse each one. Because the subdivisions become so small, I can traverse billions of them in a second. At some point, the subdivisions become infinitely small.

So in traveling from point A to point B, I traverse an infinite amount of subdivisions in an infinitely small amount of time, which, when all added together equals the amount of time to travel the distance from point A to point B at the given speed. This is demonstrated mathematically as pointed out somewhere above where the sum of a diminishing infinite series is equal to one.

 

[Canute]

Originally posted by scott
So in traveling from point A to point B, I traverse an infinite amount of subdivisions in an infinitely small amount of time,

Why does it take any time to get there then?

 

[UltraPi1]

An infinity of points between two chosen points is the same as saying there are no points at all other than the points specified. The time it takes between two chosen points is known by the completion or passage of the two points. Any subdivisions between the chosen points must be carried out by separate points unrelated to the chosen ones.

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

Originally posted by scott
My simple understanding is this - the paradox says that becuse you have to cross an infinite number of "halfway" points on your journey from point A to point B, you'll never reach point B. This fails to consider that because the distance from point A to point B is fixed, and speed is fixed, the successive subdivisions must necessarily become smaller and smaller, requiring a smaller and smaller amount of time to traverse each one. Because the subdivisions become so small, I can traverse billions of them in a second. At some point, the subdivisions become infinitely small.
So in traveling from point A to point B, I traverse an infinite amount of subdivisions in an infinitely small amount of time, which, when all added together equals the amount of time to travel the distance from point A to point B at the given speed. This is demonstrated mathematically as pointed out somewhere above where the sum of a diminishing infinite series is equal to one.

Nice insertion, attempting to use 'time' to factor out what the Halving does, it successfully assures and certifies that you will never reach the 'end' point...Insert arguement, ad infinitum, upon 0.99999999999^{to infinity} as being equal to 1.0 (One)...absolute truth: "they never are!", rationalizing: "Yes! they are!" (at some point/level/stretch of the imagination...)

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

Originally posted by Mr. Robin Parsons
(SNIP)[/color] gets you to try counting to a specified point and preconditions the math such that the opportunity to reach that outcome is precluded...a bit like the "Tree falling in the woods.." thingy as the very next statement precludes any kind of realistic responce, "..with nothing there to hear/record it.." then "what does it sound like?" a question that precludes proper respociveness by insertion of a conditional statement that 'precludes' the, then, following question... (SNoP)[/color]

Kinda funny, to me, as the 'principal' in use, the Idea of a precluded question, something that I have, and had, introduced to people, (the first? Don't know for certain...maybe...) over time, in the last ten + years, and yet, still, no one else figured it out from knowing that...Neat eh?!

 

[Canute]

Originally posted by UltraPi1
An infinity of points between two chosen points is the same as saying there are no points at all other than the points specified. The time it takes between two chosen points is known by the completion or passage of the two points. Any subdivisions between the chosen points must be carried out by separate points unrelated to the chosen ones. [/B]

But any division of spactime into points creates a paradox of motion. It doesn't matter you hypothesise an infinty or just two.

Robin - What you say, if I understand you right, is true. It is the whole point of the question.

 

[Mr. Robin Parsons]

Originally posted by Canute
(SNIP)[/color] Robin - What you say, if I understand you right, is true. It is the whole point of the question. (SNoP)[/color]

Answering a precluded question is a redundant exercise, as it is posited in a manner as to ensure it's un-answerablity...

Change the wording of the 'tree' one, to: "If a tree falls in the woods, is there any sound, if there is no one there to record, or to hear it?" makes for a much more sensible approach, as it allows the person, being questioned, to see/know that there is an attempt to preclude the answer, a pre-condition that clearly applies to the ability to repsond to it, similar in Xeno's question, and I would suggest that if you re-arranged the question, brought in the "..and now half the distance travelled" at the end, rather then the middle, more people would see the "Common sense" knowledge that tells us it will remain 'unsolvable' as it will never achieve the responce point that has been indicated as desired...

 

[Canute]

But Zeno's paradoxes are paradoxes. They are supposed to be unanswerable. They are unanswerable because of the assumptions that they are based on, as you rightly point out. The purpose of such paradoxes is to act as 'reductio ad absurdam' arguments to show that the intial assumptions are false.

So the point of answering then is to find whether and in what way the intial assumptions are false.

 

[quartodeciman]

A slight improvement, if you will allow it.

The point of answering a paradox is whether and in what way at least one of the initial assumptions is inappropriate with respect to the other assumptions.