Angular momentum of a free Dirac particle

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the angular momentum of a free Dirac particle, specifically addressing the relationship between the angular momentum operator L and the Hamiltonian H, where [L, H] ≠ 0. Dirac introduced an operator S to satisfy the equation [S, H] = -[L, H], leading to the total angular momentum J = L + S, which commutes with H, indicating its constancy in motion. The operator S corresponds to a spin eigenvalue of 1/2, confirming that solutions to the Dirac equation describe fermions. Despite the absence of external forces, L and S can still vary over time due to internal interactions.

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DOTDO
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Hi

I read that

for Dirac equation, [ L , H ] =/ 0 ,

so Dirac found a operator S such that

1. [ S , H ] = - [L, H] ---> [ J, H ] = 0 where J = L + S , the total angular momentum.

2. S gives an eigenvalue of spin 1/2 ---> solutions of Dirac equation describe fermions.
The total angular momentum is constant in motion...

but still, L and S varies as time elapses although there is no external force... why?And if there exists an external force, do L and S both change?
 
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DOTDO said:
but still, L and S varies as time elapses although there is no external force... why?
This is an internal exchange of angular momentum and deals with internal interactions. If you had an interaction with an external system you might change the total angular momentum.
 

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