Answer:Newton-Cotes Formula: Proving $\omega_j=\omega_{n-j}$ & $(b-a)$ Sum

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving two properties related to the Newton-Cotes formula, specifically showing that the weights satisfy $\omega_j = \omega_{n-j}$ and that the sum of the weights equals $(b-a)$. The context includes theoretical aspects of numerical integration and quadrature formulae.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose that the first proof should consider odd functions in the interval from -1 to 1 to show that $\omega_j = \omega_{n-j}$.
  • Others clarify that $\omega_j$ refers to quadrature weights and suggest that the symmetry of the Lagrange polynomials leads to the conclusion that $\omega_j = \omega_{n-j}$.
  • It is mentioned that the Lagrange interpolation polynomial is independent of the function being integrated, which supports the symmetry argument.
  • Participants discuss the second proof, which involves using the quadrature formula with the constant function $f(x) = 1$ to show that $\sum_j \omega_j = (b-a)$.
  • One participant notes that substituting $f(x) = 1$ leads to an exact equality rather than an approximation, reinforcing the claim that $\sum_j \omega_j = (b-a)$.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is a general agreement on the approach to proving both properties, but the discussion includes multiple perspectives on the proofs and the implications of the symmetry in the weights.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not resolve all assumptions regarding the nature of the functions involved or the specific conditions under which the proofs hold.

akerman
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I have been given this question and I have no idea how to answer it. I know that the answer will contain two small proofs where one of them uses quadrature formulae.
So I have been ask to show Show it holds that $\omega_j=\omega_{n-j}$ and that $\sum_j{\omega_j}=(b-a)$. Knowing that Newton cotes formulae is in the equi spaced points $x_i=a+ih$ with $h=(b-a)/n$ and $i=0,\dots,n$

Any idea how to properly solve this?
 
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First proof should consider odd functions in the interval from -1 to 1, and I would like to show that ωj=ωn−j The second one should consider the quadrature formulae (constant funciton 1) based on that I would like to prove ∑jωj=(b−a) where ω is the weights. However I don't know how...
 
I haven't answered before because I don't quite know what to make of your question.

Which formulae do you mean?
What do you mean by $\omega_j$?
 
So in this context ωj are weights, actually I think its called a quadrature weight. So I would like to show that for corresponding weights it is true or it holds that ωj = ωj-1. I am sure for this proof odd functions need to be considered in the interval of -1 to 1. Does that explain it any better?
 
I like Serena said:
I haven't answered before because I don't quite know what to make of your question.

Which formulae do you mean?
What do you mean by $\omega_j$?

We interpolate $f$ using a Lagrange interpolation polynomial of the form

$$
p_n(x)=\sum_{k=0}^nL_k(x)f(x_k).
$$

We obtain

$$
\int_a^bf(x)dx\approx \int_a^b\sum_{k=0}^nL_k(x)f(x_k)=\sum_{k=0}^nf(x_k)\int_a^bL_k(x)dx:=\sum_{k=0}^nf(x_k)\omega_k,
$$
where the $\omega_k:=\int_a^bL_k(x)dx$ are called integration weights.

So based on that I would like to prove that $ω_j=ω_{n−j}$ and the second proof should be proving that $\sum\limits_j ω_j=(b−a)$.

I like Serena do you know how it can be achieved?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
akerman said:
We interpolate $f$ using a Lagrange interpolation polynomial of the form

$$
p_n(x)=\sum_{k=0}^nL_k(x)f(x_k).
$$

We obtain

$$
\int_a^bf(x)dx\approx \int_a^b\sum_{k=0}^nL_k(x)f(x_k)=\sum_{k=0}^nf(x_k)\int_a^bL_k(x)dx:=\sum_{k=0}^nf(x_k)\omega_k,
$$
where the $\omega_k:=\int_a^bL_k(x)dx$ are called integration weights.

So based on that I would like to prove that $ω_j=ω_{n−j}$ and the second proof should be proving that $\sum\limits_j ω_j=(b−a)$.

I like Serena do you know how it can be achieved?

The Lagrange polynomials $L_k(x)$ are completely independent of $f(x)$.
Since the interval has been split in equal subintervals, the construction of $L_k(x)$ is completely symmetric.
Therefore $L_k(x) = L_{n-k}(x)$, which in turn implies that $ω_j=ω_{n−j}$.
 
I like Serena said:
The Lagrange polynomials $L_k(x)$ are completely independent of $f(x)$.
Since the interval has been split in equal subintervals, the construction of $L_k(x)$ is completely symmetric.
Therefore $L_k(x) = L_{n-k}(x)$, which in turn implies that $ω_j=ω_{n−j}$.

OK that makes sense.
What about the second proof which is ∑jωj=(b−a). I need to prove it considering the quadrature formulae (constant function 1)
 
akerman said:
OK that makes sense.
What about the second proof which is ∑jωj=(b−a). I need to prove it considering the quadrature formulae (constant function 1)

If we fill in $f(x)=1$, we get in the left hand side:
$$\int_a^b 1\ dx = b-a$$
and on the right hand side:
$$\sum_{k=0}^n 1 \cdot \omega_k = \sum_j \omega_j$$

In other words:
$$b-a \approx \sum_j \omega_j$$

Furthermore, with $f(x)=1$ the Lagrange interpolation is a perfect interpolation.
That is:
$$f(x) = p_n(x)$$
So the approximation will actually be an equality.

So:
$$b-a = \sum_j \omega_j$$
which concludes the proof.
 

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