Answer to Sakurai 2.22 makes no sense

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a quantum mechanics problem involving a particle in a one-dimensional potential. The original poster is tasked with finding the expectation value of for the ground state of a particle subject to a specific potential, which includes an infinite wall at x=0.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to reconcile a known answer with their own calculations, questioning the normalization of the wave function in the context of the given potential. Other participants engage by confirming the need for renormalization and expressing skepticism about the solutions manual's accuracy.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring the implications of wave function normalization and its effect on the expectation value calculation. There is a shared concern regarding the potential error in the solutions manual, but no consensus has been reached on the correct approach or answer.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the wave function must be normalized from 0 to infinity due to the infinite wall at x=0, which raises questions about the validity of using a wave function normalized over a different range.

QFT25
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Homework Statement


Consider a particle of mass m subject to a one-dimensional potential of the following form:

(1/2)k*x^2 x>0

Infinity for 0<x

Find <x^2> for the ground state

Homework Equations



<x^2>= <Psi|x^2|Psi>

The Attempt at a Solution



I know the answer is 3*h/(4*m*w) but to me that makes no sense. That answer was derived using the first excited state of the ground state for the potential in which there is no infinite wall at x=0. That state is normalized for -Infinity to Infinity. But in our circumstance the motion can only be from 0 to Infinity. That means I need to re-normalize the wave function so that it it's norm is 1 from 0 to Infinity. When I do that and calculate the expectation value I get 3*h/(2*m*w). I don't understand how you can use a wave function which is not normalized from 0 to Infinity to calculate < x^2> from 0 to infinity
 
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I think you are correct that the wavefunction should be renormalized and the answer for <x2> is (3ħ)/(2mω).
 
QFT25 said:
I know the answer is 3*h/(4*m*w) but to me that makes no sense.
Where did you get that answer?
 
DrClaude said:
Where did you get that answer?
The solutions manual. I think it has an error.
 
QFT25 said:
The solutions manual. I think it has an error.
I agree. The wave function has to be renormalized.
 

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