Arc Length Formula: Understanding the Proof

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the proof of the arc length formula in the context of line integrals. Participants are exploring the implications of the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) on the existence of the integral and the dependence on sample points within the definition of the definite integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions how the arc length formula can exist if it depends on the sample points $x_i^*$ guaranteed by the MVT.
  • Another participant suggests that the definition of the definite integral is independent of the choice of sample points, which can be shown using the uniform continuity of the function.
  • A third participant confirms the use of the partition definition of the definite integral and expresses concern that the arc length formula may still depend on the chosen sample points, potentially affecting its integrability.
  • A later reply asserts that as long as $f'$ is continuous, the Riemann sums converge to the integral, implying that the integral is well-defined despite the sample points.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether the arc length formula's dependence on sample points affects its integrability. There is no consensus reached on this matter.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference various definitions of the definite integral and the continuity of functions, but the implications of these definitions on the arc length formula remain unresolved.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be useful for students studying calculus, particularly those interested in the concepts of line integrals and the definitions of definite integrals.

Dethrone
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I'm reading about Line Integrals, so I thought I'd review the proof for the arc length formula. However, there's something I don't quite understand about the proof that I either overlooked or understood before.View attachment 4468View attachment 4469

From what I see, the arc length formula holds because the MVT guarantees that there exists an $x_i^* \in [x_{i-1},x_i]$ for all $i$. This means that the integral depends on the sample points $x_i^*$ - the sample points must be the same $x_i^*$ that the MVT guarantees. If the value of the integral depends on the sample points, how does the integral exist?
 

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Hi Rido12,

How does your book define the definite integral? There are various (but equivalent) formulations that used by different textbooks. It'll be helpful if you could show your book's definition.

From what I see though, my guess is that the formulation they use is the following. Let $f$ be a continuous function on $[a,b]$. Partition the interval $[a,b]$ into $n$ subintervals of equal length $\Delta x$ and choose a point $x_i^*$ from each subinterval. Then $\int_a^b f(x)\, dx$ is defined as $\lim\limits_{n\to \infty} \sum\limits_{i = 1}^n f(x_i^*)\, \Delta x$. If this is the formulation being used, then your question has to do why this formulation is well-defined, not about the arclength. The definition of the definite integral is independent of the choice of sample points, which can be proven by using the uniform continuity of $f$ on $[a,b]$.
 
Hi Euge,

In class, we were taught the partition definition of the definite integral, but the definition that the book uses is the following:

View attachment 4473

Yes, my question is the last sentence of yours. From the definition of the integral provided above, doesn't the arc length formula depend on the sample points chosen and thus, not integrable?
 

Attachments

  • Definition.PNG
    Definition.PNG
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The definition used matches the one I wrote. As long as $f'$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, so is $\sqrt{1 + (f')^2}$. So the Riemann sums $\sum\limits_{i = 1}^n \sqrt{1 + [f'(x_i^*)]^2}\,\Delta x$ converge to $\int_a^b \sqrt{1 + [f'(x)]^2}\, dx$.
 

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