Are Linear Transformations of Linearly Dependent Sets Also Linearly Dependent?

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If A is a 3x3 matrix and {v1, v2, v3} is a linearly dependent set of vectors in R^3, then the transformed set {Av1, Av2, Av3} is also linearly dependent. This is because linear transformations preserve vector addition and scalar multiplication, allowing the relationship among the original vectors to be maintained after transformation. Conversely, if {Av1, Av2, Av3} is linearly independent, then {v1, v2, v3} must also be independent, but this does not hold for arbitrary matrices A. If A is invertible, the independence of the original set is preserved after transformation. The discussions highlight the significance of matrix properties in determining the linear dependence or independence of vector sets.
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If A is a 3x3 Matrix and {v1, v2, v3} is a linearly dependent set of vectors in R^3, then {Av1, Av2, Av3} is also a linearly dependent set?

Is this true? Can someone please explain why or why not??

What I think: I think it is true because I read that a linear transformation preserves the operations of vector addition and scalar multiplication.
 
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If v1,v2,v3 are linearly dependent you can find constants a1, a2, a3 not all 0 such that
a_1v_1 + a_2v_2 + a_3v_3 = 0
Now left-multiplying this by A you get:
A(a_1v_1+a_2v_2+a_3v_3) = A0=0
Now use your rules for matrix arithmetic to derive:
a_1(Av_1)+a_2(Av_2)+a_3(Av_3)=0
(HINT: Ak = kA for constants k, and A(v+w) = Av+Aw for vectors v, w where the expression makes sense).
 
That makes sense. So if we have a1(Av1) + a2(Av2) + a3(Av3) = 0, then at least one of the constants could be zero and that will definitely result to a linearly dependent set.
Thanks.

That leads me to a related theory: Let's assume we are talking about {v1, v2, v3} being a linearly INDEPENDENT set now. If we multiply the vectors by the matrix A, how does it affect the independece? Would it make a differerence if the matrix A is invertible?
 
Mola said:
That leads me to a related theory: Let's assume we are talking about {v1, v2, v3} being a linearly INDEPENDENT set now. If we multiply the vectors by the matrix A, how does it affect the independece? Would it make a differerence if the matrix A is invertible?

This is actually a quite interesting little question (well in my opinion anyway). First for fixed A, v1,v2,v3 note that if we take the contrapositive of your initial result we get:
If Av1, Av2, Av3 are linearly independent, then v1,v2,v3 are linearly independent.
so for linear independence it goes backwards. For an arbitrary matrix A we can not prove your new statement since we can just let A be the 0 matrix. However if A is invertible, then we can just go backwards by noting that if,
a_1Av_1+a_2Av_2+a_3Av_3 = 0
Then we can left-multiply by A^{-1} to get,
a_1v_1+a_2v_2+a_3v_3 = 0
so if v1,v2,v3 are linearly independent and A is invertible, then Av1, Av2, Av3 are linearly independent.
 
Thanks rasmhop... I did think "A" being an invertible matrix could make a difference but I didn't know how to prove it.
That was a very good help from you.
 
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