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Are there any regulating limit on spin of particle?.E.g why spin of electron is 1/2 but not 3/2,spin of photon is 1 but not 2 e.t.c

Thank you very much in advance.

- Thread starter ndung200790
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- #1

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Are there any regulating limit on spin of particle?.E.g why spin of electron is 1/2 but not 3/2,spin of photon is 1 but not 2 e.t.c

Thank you very much in advance.

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Currently, what is assumed is that an electron's spin is an intrinsic property. That it originates from the angular momentum of the particle.

In quantum mechanics, angular momentum is quantized (meaning that it is not only comprised of energy but also of particles). Since physical particles are enabling this spin to occur, there should be a countable, finite number of them. Perhaps that explains why the numbers are finite ratios of integers, and not weird repeating decimals.

I cannot answer WHY every particle has some intrinsic angular momentum (probably due to the conditions under which it was formed).

One of the "regulating conditions" you ask about is most likely the quantization of angular momentum. Generally when you think of angular momentum, you think of some kind of energetic value, not chunks of matter that are rotating the object in question around.

If you want to know why angular momentum is quantized, you can refer to this thread: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=194897

This is a good source to read further: http://www.electronspin.org/

Also, this Wikipedia page explains how in relatively simple terms (but not why): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spin_(physics [Broken])

In quantum mechanics, angular momentum is quantized (meaning that it is not only comprised of energy but also of particles). Since physical particles are enabling this spin to occur, there should be a countable, finite number of them. Perhaps that explains why the numbers are finite ratios of integers, and not weird repeating decimals.

I cannot answer WHY every particle has some intrinsic angular momentum (probably due to the conditions under which it was formed).

One of the "regulating conditions" you ask about is most likely the quantization of angular momentum. Generally when you think of angular momentum, you think of some kind of energetic value, not chunks of matter that are rotating the object in question around.

If you want to know why angular momentum is quantized, you can refer to this thread: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=194897

This is a good source to read further: http://www.electronspin.org/

Also, this Wikipedia page explains how in relatively simple terms (but not why): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spin_(physics [Broken])

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Because it is part of the defining conditions. If one observes a particle with different quantum numbers (mass, spin, and charges) from one of the standard ones, one concludes that it is not one of the standard particles.I cannot answer WHY every particle has some intrinsic angular momentum (probably due to the conditions under which it was formed).

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Yes. To each valuie of mass (m>=0) and spin (s=0,1/2, 1,...), there is a corresponding irreducible unitary representation of the Poincare group, which defines this transformation behavior. This is explained in detail in Chapter 2 of Vol. 1 of Weinberg's book ''The quantum theory of fields'' for particles, and in Chapter 6 for the corresponding field operators.Are there any general transformation of spinor (or field operator of high spin particles) under Lorentz symmetry?

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