MHB Are these two propositions equivalent when dealing with subsets of real numbers?

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Hello! (Wave)

I want to show that the following is equivalent:

  1. each non-empty and upper bounded subset of real numbers has a least upper bound.
  2. each non-empty and lower bounded subset of real numbers has a greatest lower bound.

I have thought the following so far:

$1. \Rightarrow 2.$:

Let $A$ be an arbitrary non-empty and upper bounded subset of real numbers with least upper bound $a$.
Let $B=-A=\{ -x \mid x \in A\}$.
We have that $x \leq a, \forall x \in A$. Then $-x \geq -a$, so $y \geq -a, \forall y \in B$ and thus $B$ has $-a$ as its greatest lower bound.

Is the proof that 1. implies 2. as above complete? (Thinking)
 
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evinda said:
Hello! (Wave)

I want to show that the following is equivalent:

  1. each non-empty and upper bounded subset of real numbers has a least upper bound.
  2. each non-empty and lower bounded subset of real numbers has a greatest lower bound.

I have thought the following so far:

$1. \Rightarrow 2.$:

Let $A$ be an arbitrary non-empty and upper bounded subset of real numbers with least upper bound $a$.
Let $B=-A=\{ -x \mid x \in A\}$.
We have that $x \leq a, \forall x \in A$. Then $-x \geq -a$, so $y \geq -a, \forall y \in B$ and thus $B$ has $-a$ as its greatest lower bound.

Is the proof that 1. implies 2. as above complete? (Thinking)

Hey evinda!

You have proven it only for a $B$ that is of the form $-A$, but formally it should be for each $B$ that is non-empty and has a lower bounded subset.
That is, we should start with a $B$ that is a non-empty and lower bounded subset of real numbers.
And then, using (1), show that $B$ has a greatest lower bound, shouldn't we? (Thinking)
 
I like Serena said:
Hey evinda!

You have proven it only for a $B$ that is of the form $-A$, but formally it should be for each $B$ that is non-empty and has a lower bounded subset.
That is, we should start with a $B$ that is a non-empty and lower bounded subset of real numbers.
And then, using (1), show that $B$ has a greatest lower bound, shouldn't we? (Thinking)

Oh yes, right... (Nod)

So, we suppose that (1) holds.
Let $B$ be an arbitrary non-empty and lower bounded subset of real numbers. Then the set $A=-B=\{ -y \mid y \in B\}$ is non-empty and upper bounded. Since (1) holds, $A$ has a least upper bound, i.e. $-x \leq a, \forall x \in B$, impying that $B$ has a greatest lower bound, since then $x \geq -a, \forall x \in B$.

Is it right like that? (Thinking)
 
evinda said:
Oh yes, right...

So, we suppose that (1) holds.
Let $B$ be an arbitrary non-empty and lower bounded subset of real numbers. Then the set $A=-B=\{ -y \mid y \in B\}$ is non-empty and upper bounded. Since (1) holds, $A$ has a least upper bound, i.e. $-x \leq a, \forall x \in B$, impying that $B$ has a greatest lower bound, since then $x \geq -a, \forall x \in B$.

Is it right like that?

Yep. (Nod)
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
Yep. (Nod)

Great... Thank you (Happy)
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
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