onelegout
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Hi,
I know very little about maths. I'm struggling to get my head around a question I was asked today, and I was wondering whether someone could explain it to me.
Question:
If a very large group of kids took it in turns to roll a die again and again until it landed on '1', on average how many rolls would they take each.
The question assumes a true and fair 6-sided die numbered 1 to 6, and I take 'very large' to mean 'large enough to be statistically viable'.
I am told the answer to this is '6'.
I have trouble understanding why the answer is 6 and not 3.5.
The way I look at it, the probability of rolling a 1 is 1/6. This means that probability states that the average child should roll a 1 in the first 6 attempts.
This also means that the 1 has an equal chance of appearing on each of the first 6 rolls.
To me that means that it should average out at 3.5 rolls.
I understand that it is perfectly possible however unlikely that the die will be rolled many times without landing on a 1, for example a child could roll it 10,000 times before it landed on a 1. This is extremely unlikely, but it IS possible.
What I want to know, is how I apply this improbable but possible situation to answering the question.
I'm sorry if this all seems a little jumbled or if I've got the wrong end of the stick completely, but I have little more than a basic GCSE maths education (which I failed dismally!)
Thanks,
Henry
I know very little about maths. I'm struggling to get my head around a question I was asked today, and I was wondering whether someone could explain it to me.
Question:
If a very large group of kids took it in turns to roll a die again and again until it landed on '1', on average how many rolls would they take each.
The question assumes a true and fair 6-sided die numbered 1 to 6, and I take 'very large' to mean 'large enough to be statistically viable'.
I am told the answer to this is '6'.
I have trouble understanding why the answer is 6 and not 3.5.
The way I look at it, the probability of rolling a 1 is 1/6. This means that probability states that the average child should roll a 1 in the first 6 attempts.
This also means that the 1 has an equal chance of appearing on each of the first 6 rolls.
To me that means that it should average out at 3.5 rolls.
I understand that it is perfectly possible however unlikely that the die will be rolled many times without landing on a 1, for example a child could roll it 10,000 times before it landed on a 1. This is extremely unlikely, but it IS possible.
What I want to know, is how I apply this improbable but possible situation to answering the question.
I'm sorry if this all seems a little jumbled or if I've got the wrong end of the stick completely, but I have little more than a basic GCSE maths education (which I failed dismally!)
Thanks,
Henry