Undergrad Basel problem, primes and π²/6

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The discussion centers on the relationship between the Basel problem and the formula involving prime numbers, both yielding the result π²/6. The connection is established through the Riemann zeta function, which shows that despite their different appearances, the two formulas represent the same mathematical concept. Participants explore the idea of independence among various formulas for calculating π, concluding that none are truly independent since they can be derived from one another. The conversation highlights the importance of rearranging formulas to demonstrate their equivalence. Ultimately, the discussion emphasizes the interconnectedness of mathematical expressions related to π.
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Bear with me, I know nothing.

Eons ego @micromass told me about this beautiful formula:

\frac {\pi^2} 6 = \prod\limits_{P}\left( 1-\frac 1 {p^2}\right) ^{-1}

where p are primes. Just a few minutes ago I have learned about the Basel problem and its solution:

\sum \limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac 1 {n^2} = \frac {\pi^2} 6

What struck me was that it is the same π²/6 in both cases.

Somehow I feel like it can be actually the same formula - just the one based on prime numbers takes into account fact that repetitions of prime factors cancel out when we try to sum the fractions finding the common denominator. Am I right, or am I completely off, as usual?
 
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Here comes a follow up question:

At first sight both formulas listed in my first post look differently, but it turns out it is actually the same thing. There are many formulas allowing calculation of π - or some value related to π. Do we know anything about how many of them are independent?
 
Borek said:
Here comes a follow up question:

At first sight both formulas listed in my first post look differently, but it turns out it is actually the same thing. There are many formulas allowing calculation of π - or some value related to π. Do we know anything about how many of them are independent?

What do you mean with independent? In a strict sense, none of the formulas are independent in the sense that we can accept one formula as the definition of ##\pi## and derive all other formulas from it.
 
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Good point, perhaps my thinking is flawed somehow.

In the above case we don't need to know that both formulas produce the same result to prove they are equivalent. It is enough to rearrange them, so they are both describing exactly the same calculation. In this sense I don't consider them to be independent.
 
Actually we started with stating "it is the same formula" (it can be obtained just by rearranging). So what if by "independent" I mean "not the same"?
 
Good morning I have been refreshing my memory about Leibniz differentiation of integrals and found some useful videos from digital-university.org on YouTube. Although the audio quality is poor and the speaker proceeds a bit slowly, the explanations and processes are clear. However, it seems that one video in the Leibniz rule series is missing. While the videos are still present on YouTube, the referring website no longer exists but is preserved on the internet archive...

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