Basic measurement theory question

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter BWV
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Measurement Theory
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around basic concepts in measure theory, particularly focusing on the Lebesgue measure of rational and irrational numbers, the implications of density, and the relationship between measure and cardinality. Participants explore these ideas in the context of probability and statistics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants note that rational numbers are dense in the reals, leading to questions about the Lebesgue measure of sets of rational numbers approximating irrationals.
  • There is a suggestion that the Lebesgue measure of any countable set, including rational numbers, is zero.
  • One participant states that the Lebesgue measure of the real numbers does not exist or is infinite, while another emphasizes that the measure of the rationals is zero.
  • Some participants discuss the implications of the countability of rational numbers versus the uncountability of irrational numbers, suggesting that this distinction affects their measures.
  • There is a mention of the application of Lebesgue measure in statistics, particularly in relation to probability distributions and mapping to the reals.
  • Participants reference Cantor's diagonal argument as a way to understand the uncountability of the reals.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the nature of Lebesgue measure, particularly regarding the measure of the reals and the rationals. While some agree on the measure of countable sets being zero, the overall discussion remains unresolved with multiple competing views on the implications of these measures.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the dependence on definitions of measure and cardinality, as well as unresolved mathematical steps regarding the measure of specific sets.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be of interest to those studying measure theory, probability, and statistics, particularly in understanding the foundational concepts of Lebesgue measure and its applications.

BWV
Messages
1,665
Reaction score
1,999
Trying to get my head around some basic points of measure theory

So rational numbers are dense in the reals. I.e., if
x, y \in \mathbb{R}
with
x < y
, then there exists an
r \in \mathbb{Q}
such that
x < r < y
. It follows that there are then infinitely many such.

The Lebesgue measure of any single irrational (or rational number) is zero in ##\mathbb{R}## or ##\mathbb{Q}##

let x = an irrational number, say √2
Let s=set of rational numbers approximating x to i decimal places with i = [0,∞)

What is the Lebesgue measure m(s)?

also, if m(##\mathbb{R}##)>m(##\mathbb{Q}##), how do you account for the fact that ##\mathbb{Q}## is dense in ##\mathbb{R}##, i.e. for every irrational number, there are an infinite number of rational approximations (s above)?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Do you know what ##m(\mathbb{Q})## is? If so you should be able to compute m(s) easily.

There are an equal number of integer points as there are rational points. There are *so* many more real numbers. With that said, cardinal size of the set doesn't say much about the measure, but I think that's a good starting point for the intuition here.

One last thing to note, ##m(\mathbb{R})## doesn't exist (or is infinity)
 
Office_Shredder said:
Do you know what ##m(\mathbb{Q})## is? If so you should be able to compute m(s) easily.

There are an equal number of integer points as there are rational points. There are *so* many more real numbers. With that said, cardinal size of the set doesn't say much about the measure, but I think that's a good starting point for the intuition here.

One last thing to note, ##m(\mathbb{R})## doesn't exist (or is infinity)
Ok thanks, still getting my head around it, but the measure of any countable set is zero and so is my example s above
 
BWV said:
i.e. for every irrational number, there are an infinite number of rational approximations (s above)?
Only if you reuse the rational numbers a lot to get close to all those irrational numbers. Are you familiar with the fact that the set of rational numbers is countably infinite and that the set of irrational numbers is uncountably infinite? Since the rational numbers are countable, you can enclose each of them in a sequence of smaller and smaller intervals where the total length of the intervals is as small as you want. That proves that the measure of the rationals is zero. measure(rationals in [0,1])= 0. You can not do the same thing with the irrationals because they are uncountable and you can not sum the interval lengths of an uncountable number of intervals. Furthermore, the irrationals in [0,1] have measure 1-measure(rationals in [0,1]) = 1-0 = 1.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: BWV
I am reading this in the context of statistics, with the Lebesgue measure tying to probability, and to do this everything is mapped to the reals, so a distribution that only takes integer values would have to be mapped with a step function? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Step_function.

Read some of the definitions, but a reasonable informal definition of why the reals are uncountable is that you cannot distinguish between any number of irrational numbers that may have the same digits up to some arbitrarily large number of decimal places?
 
BWV said:
I am reading this in the context of statistics, with the Lebesgue measure tying to probability, and to do this everything is mapped to the reals, so a distribution that only takes integer values would have to be mapped with a step function? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Step_function.
Yes. Probability is one of the common applications of Lebesgue measures.
Read some of the definitions, but a reasonable informal definition of why the reals are uncountable is that you cannot distinguish between any number of irrational numbers that may have the same digits up to some arbitrarily large number of decimal places?
The best formal or informal way to see that the real numbers are uncountable (interpret uncountable as un-listable) is the Canter diagonal proof. It is a proof by contradiction. If you imagine that you have listed ALL the real numbers in [0,1], then it is still easy to show one (in fact incredibly many) that you have missed from your list.
 

Attachments

  • Like
Likes   Reactions: BWV

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
9K