- #1
TaylorWatts
- 16
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Regarding the definition of homemorphism, when we say a function is a homeomorphism if it is continuous, bijective, and has a continuous inverse I assume that means over the codomain only.
For example if we have a map from f: R -> (0,1) does f inverse need to be continuous on (0,1) only?
For example if we have a map from f: R -> (0,1) does f inverse need to be continuous on (0,1) only?