Bernoulli's Rule: Existence of a Point c in (a,b)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on Bernoulli's Rule as presented in Rudin's work, specifically regarding the existence of a point \( c \) in the interval \( (a,b) \) where the limit of the differentiable quotient \( \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)} \) approaches a constant \( A \) as \( x \) approaches \( a \). The key conclusion is that if \( A < r \), then there exists a point \( c \) such that for all \( x \) in the interval \( (a,c) \), the inequality \( \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)} < r \) holds. The discussion clarifies the significance of specifying \( a < x < c \) rather than simply stating \( \exists x \in (a,b) \).

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In his treatment of L'hôpital/Bernoulli's rule (please see attached), Rudin before ineq. ## (17)## mentions that since the differentiable quotient

##\frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)} \rightarrow A## as ##x \rightarrow a## and ##A<r## then there exists a pt ##c \in (a,b) \ s.t. \ a<x<c \Rightarrow \ \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)}<r##

Is it so because ##x## approaches ##a## that's why he used ##a<x<c## instead of ##c<x<b##

and why this ##c## in the first place? What's wrong with just saying, ##\exists x \in (a,b)## etc
 

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The theorem is not there exists an x in the interval, but rather for all x, a < x <c, f'/g' < r.
 
mathman said:
The theorem is not there exists an x in the interval, but rather for all x, a < x <c, f'/g' < r.

True. Thanks
 

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