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Below is a question I found in old statistics book of mine, that I really would like to know how to solve:
Suppose two players, A and B, play a game. If we assume that A has probability pA og winning and B has probability pB=1-pA of winning, the number of wins and losses for player A will be binomially distributed.
Now let us assume that we a priori don't know pA and pB. Player A and player B play 50 games and it is found that player A wins 30 games. Can he then claim that he is the better player?
Suppose two players, A and B, play a game. If we assume that A has probability pA og winning and B has probability pB=1-pA of winning, the number of wins and losses for player A will be binomially distributed.
Now let us assume that we a priori don't know pA and pB. Player A and player B play 50 games and it is found that player A wins 30 games. Can he then claim that he is the better player?