Kenny_L said:
The thing here is that: you fail to understand that there's a possibility that energy was not always abundant. And you also fail to understand that there's a possibility that all resources (which includes energy and its possible constituents) was not always abundant/there/around. Plus you also fail to understand how something that you might claim to have been 'always there' could 'be there' without the need of being produced/formed. So basically, you're just as clueless as all of us when it comes to understanding how energy (etc) is/became abundant.
I did not see anyone making definite statements about reality except for you Kenny. I am sure OoW keeps a keen eye out for future 'possibilities', as we all do.
Here is the problem kenny, you are asking that
if one assumes that energy is infinite in time then one must answer as to an origin, or an 'abundance' (whatever technical term that is),
when and only when one makes that assertion first, then the question ceases to have meaning. Surely you can see the case?
If one were to assume that energy is/was not conserved in time (infinite) then your question might have some validity. You are going to have to show some pretty convincing proofs against the universal conservation of energy on that one though. As far as we know at this point is history, the conservation of energy is one of the
most repeatedly confirmed statements about reality. That is why they are "Conservation Laws" not "theories". Granted, most everything should be subject to speculation, good luck.
However, if your main question remains one of the nature of existence, then I am afraid that you will have to abandon that based on the premise above, and the conversations in the thread OoW linked to in an earlier post.
Kenny_L said:
Also, could you please give us your theory about how certain 'resources' achieves/achieved the property of having always existed without the need for being formed or created by something else?
Go ahead...be my guest and give us your best shot.
All one must do is show that it is in an eternal state at any time of measurement. If that were the case, then it fully solves the problem/answers the question. "Origin" ceases to have meaning in an infinite system. The property of infinite is homogeneous along a given world-line.
Check out these videos Kenny, they are very reviling as to the nature of an infinity:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gh4F5BQ8hgw"
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1tvU0XKVFTQ"- This one is a little more on the philosophical side, but still good.
Let me know what you think.