Binomial theorem-related proof

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    Binomial Proof
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the expression an+3 + (a + 1)2n+3 is divisible by a2 + a + 1, with a focus on using mathematical induction. Participants explore the conditions under which this proof holds, particularly regarding the values of n.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested
  • Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests using mathematical induction to prove the divisibility, starting with a base case for n=-1.
  • Another participant agrees that induction is appropriate and discusses rewriting the expression into a specific form to facilitate the proof.
  • Several participants express uncertainty about assuming the divisibility of the expression when that is the goal of the proof.
  • One participant clarifies the induction process, emphasizing the importance of proving the statement for a base case and then for n+1, while suggesting using a different variable for clarity.
  • Another participant shares their struggle with the problem and requests hints, indicating difficulty in finding a solution through various methods.
  • A later reply provides a specific approach to the induction proof, showing how to relate In+1 to In and suggesting that the proof does not hold for n less than -1.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the use of mathematical induction as a method for the proof, but there is disagreement and uncertainty regarding the assumptions made during the induction process and the conditions under which the proof holds.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention the need for clarity in the induction hypothesis and the importance of specifying the values of n for which the proof is valid. There are unresolved questions about the assumptions and the exact nature of the proof's applicability.

Sheepwall
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I've been thinking about this for some time. Now I'm coming on here in the hope of getting some help;

Prove that an+3 + (a + 1)2n+3 is divisible by a2 + a + 1.

I can't quite remember the restrictions on n, though I'd imagine it'd be "for all real n ≥ -1" or something similar.

Thanks in advance! :)

EDIT: The way to do this would probably be through the method of mathematical induction, since that was the subject of class the day this problem was given.
 
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Mathematical induction is definitely the way to go, yeah. Proving that it's true for n=-1 is rather simple, as I'm sure you've already seen. Then you just need to take the expression:

a^{(n+1)+3} + (a + 1)^{2(n+1)+3}

And rewrite it into an expression of the form:

f(a) \left(a^{n+3} + (a+1)^{2n+3}\right)

Where f(a) can be any function. Since you know the latter is divisible by a^2+a+1 by assumption, then the full expression will be divisible by a^2+a+1 as well, and that will conclude the proof!
 
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Can I really assume that an+3 + (a + 1)2n+3 is divisible by a2 + a + 1, when that is what I am aiming to prove?

Sorry, just trying to get into the whole induction thinking...

Thanks for your time, btw :) really appreciate it!
 
Yes, you can. In fact, that's the whole point of induction! You prove a certain base case (here, n=-1), then you make the assumption that it's true for an unspecified number n, and using that assumption, prove that it's also true for n+1. Both of those facts together show that it's true for all n≥-1, as long as n's an integer!
 
Sheepwall said:
Can I really assume that an+3 + (a + 1)2n+3 is divisible by a2 + a + 1, when that is what I am aiming to prove?

Sorry, just trying to get into the whole induction thinking...

Thanks for your time, btw :) really appreciate it!
No, that's NOT what you are trying to prove. What you are trying to prove is that "an+3 + (a + 1)2n+3 is divisible by a2 + a + 1 for all n". What you are assuming with induction is "an+3 + (a + 1)2n+3 is divisible by a2 + a + 1 for a single value of n.
(I prefer to use a different letter, say "k", rather than "n" when stating induction hypothesis to avoid that mistake: "if a statement is true for n= 1 (or 0 or -1) and whenever the statement is true for a number, k, it I also true for k+1 then the statement is true for all n.")

That is, once you have proved it true for -1, you then show it is true for =1+1= 0. Now that you know it is true for 0, you show it is true for 0+1= 1. Now that you know it is true for 1, you show it is true for 1+ 1= 2.

Showing that "if it is true for k then it is true for k+1" collapses all of those into one proof.
 
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HallsofIvy said:
No, that's NOT what you are trying to prove. What you are trying to prove is that "an+3 + (a + 1)2n+3 is divisible by a2 + a + 1 for all n". What you are assuming with induction is "an+3 + (a + 1)2n+3 is divisible by a2 + a + 1 for a single value of n.
(I prefer to use a different letter, say "k", rather than "n" when stating induction hypothesis to avoid that mistake: "if a statement is true for n= 1 (or 0 or -1) and whenever the statement is true for a number, k, it I also true for k+1 then the statement is true for all n.")

That is, once you have proved it true for -1, you then show it is true for =1+1= 0. Now that you know it is true for 0, you show it is true for 0+1= 1. Now that you know it is true for 1, you show it is true for 1+ 1= 2.

Showing that "if it is true for k then it is true for k+1" collapses all of those into one proof.

Ah, yes, I shall think about that in the future.

As for this problem, though. I still can not solve it :(
 
I'm going to need some hint, I've tried some different ways; Writing (a + 1)^(2n+3) as a sum, futile long division.
Thanks in advance.
 
In = an+3 + (a+1)2n+3 , when n=-1 and n=0 it can be shown that it is divisible by a2+a+1
In+1 = an+4 + (a+1)2n+5
In+1 - In = (an+4 - an+3) + [(a+1)2n+5 - (a+1)2n+3]
which can be ultimately reduce to In+1 = a.In + (a2+a+1).(a+1)2n+3
So, by induction method u can prove. Not true for n less than -1.
 
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