- #1

dyn

- 749

- 57

Is the binomial theorem ##(1+x)^n = 1+nx+(n(n-1)/2)x^2 + ….## valid for x replaced by an infinite series such as ##x+x^2+x^3+...## with every x in the formula replaced by the infinite series ?

If so , does the modulus of the infinite series have to be less than one for the series to converge ?